Please believe me when I am saying that I am not trying to be an antagonist here because that is far from any intent I have. But I do have problems with the Abrahamic Covenant as stated above. Here are the issues:
1. Abraham produced faith BEFORE Genesis 15:6. Hebrews 11 says, "By faith Abraham obeyed when he was called to go out to a place that he was to receive as an inheritance. And he went out, not knowing where he was going. By faith he went to live in the land of promise, as in a foreign land, living in tents with Isaac and Jacob, heirs with him of the same promise. For he was looking forward to the city that has foundations, whose designer and builder is God."
So how is it that this faith was not sufficient enough for salvation?
2. Hebrews 11 then continues on to say it was Sarah's faith concerning her conception and not Abraham's: "By faith Sarah herself received power to conceive, even when she was past the age, since she considered him faithful who had promised." Why wasn't Abraham's faith mentioned at that point? Or is it that the faith as mentioned in Hebrews 11 is completely different than any "saving" faith?
3. How is it that Abraham's faith in God's promise to extend his seed was salvific in nature when it is not in the original context in Genesis?
4. The covenant in Genesis 15:6 is again mentioned in Genesis 17. Same covenant that Abraham's seed would be extended. But this time, the condition was given: "When Abram was ninety-nine years old the Lord appeared to Abram and said to him, "“I am God Almighty;
walk before me, and be blameless, that I may make my covenant between me and you, and may multiply you greatly.†So since God's portion of the covenant is the same in chapters 15 and 17, what makes faith in chapter 15 and not obedience in chapter 17?
5. In Genesis 26, God reiterates His covenant with Isaac but links it to Abraham's obedience and not faith: "... And Isaac went... unto Gerar. And Jehovah appeared unto him, and said, Go not down into Egypt. Dwell in the land which I shall tell thee of. Sojourn in this land, and I will be with thee, and will bless thee. For unto thee, and unto thy seed, I will give all these lands, and I will establish the oath which I sware unto Abraham thy father. And I will multiply thy seed as the stars of heaven, and will give unto thy seed all these lands. And in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed.
Because that Abraham obeyed my voice, and kept my charge, my commandments, my statutes, and my laws.
6. Then James comes along and mixes it up as well: " Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered up his son Isaac on the altar? You see that faith was active along with his works, and faith was completed by his works; and the Scripture was fulfilled that says, “Abraham believed God, and it was counted to him as righteousnessâ€â€”and he was called a friend of God. You see that a person is justified by works and not by faith alone." Seems to be what James was saying is that obedience + faith is what saved Abraham. It was his actions in Genesis 22 that eventually justified Abraham, not simply Abraham's faith alone in Genesis 15. This is backed up by the Genesis account: " “By myself I have sworn, declares the Lord,
because you have done this and have not withheld your son, your only son, I will surely bless you, and I will surely multiply your offspring as the stars of heaven and as the sand that is on the seashore."
7. Then we come back to Genesis 15:6 itself. Could the pronouns convolute the meaning? Could it not mean this: "And Abraham believed God and he (Abraham) counted it to him (God) as righteousness"?
The
New International Commentary on the Old Testament puts it like this:
The second part of this verse records Yahweh's response to Abram's exercise of faith: `he credited it to him as righteousness.' But even here there is a degree of ambiguity. Who credited whom? Of course, one may say that the NT settles the issue, for Paul expressly identifies the subject as God and the indirect object as Abram (Rom. 4:3). If we follow normal Hebrew syntax, in which the subject of the first clause is presumed to continue into the next clause if the subject is unexpressed, then the verse's meaning is changed... Does he, therefore, continue as the logical subject of the second clause? The Hebrew of the verse certainly permits this interpretation, especially when one recalls that sedaqa means both `righteousness' (a theological meaning) and `justice' (a juridical meaning). The whole verse could then be translated: "Abram put his faith in Yahweh, and he [Abram] considered it [the promise of seed(s)] justice."
If this commentary is correct (I don't know enough Hebrew to determine it is or isn't), Genesis 15:5 was Abraham counting the promise of God as justice by God.
Regardless, the entire basis between God's covenant with Abraham and salvation by grace through faith ALONE is convoluted at best, IMHO. Original context of the verse in Genesis 15 is not salvific, Abraham displayed faith before Genesis 15, the exact same covenant was based upon Abraham's obedience in Genesis 17, James reiterated that Genesis 15 didn't lead to justification until Abraham's obedience in Genesis 22 and the ambiguity of the meaning of the verse itself as who counted what to whom.
Hence, my confusion...