The imperfect King James Bible

The Rogue Tomato

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15 So when they had dined, Jesus saith to Simon Peter, Simon, son of Jonas, lovest thou me more than these? He saith unto him, Yea, Lord; thou knowest that I love thee. He saith unto him, Feed my lambs. 16 He saith to him again the second time, Simon, son of Jonas, lovest thou me? He saith unto him, Yea, Lord; thou knowest that I love thee. He saith unto him, Feed my sheep. 17 He saith unto him the third time, Simon, son of Jonas, lovest thou me? Peter was grieved because he said unto him the third time, Lovest thou me? And he said unto him, Lord, thou knowest all things; thou knowest that I love thee.

This passage is almost meaningless in the King James Bible (and most if not all other English translations), because of deficiencies in the English language.  The translators chose not to indicate that the word "love" is actually two different words in the Greek (phileo and agape).  I don't see how you can fully understand this passage without knowing what was going on in this conversation, and that depends on a knowledge of the Greek words being used for "love".

Therefore the King James Bible (and most other translations) are the imperfect word of God.  They fail to communicate what is probably the most crucial part of this passage. 

This is a common problem with English.  There are tenses in the Greek that do not translate well (or at all) into English, and thus important meaning is lost.  For example:

8 For by grace are ye saved through faith;

"Are" is actually a tense that would be more accurately translated as "are having been".  But translators find that too awkward and go for the easy translation. 

Personally, I don't see how any English translation could be considered the "perfect" word of God, King James or otherwise.  If there's an English translation out there that goes to the trouble of communicating the differences in the Greek, I don't know of it.  Perhaps someone can enlighten me.. 

 
The Rogue Tomato said:
15 So when they had dined, Jesus saith to Simon Peter, Simon, son of Jonas, lovest thou me more than these? He saith unto him, Yea, Lord; thou knowest that I love thee. He saith unto him, Feed my lambs. 16 He saith to him again the second time, Simon, son of Jonas, lovest thou me? He saith unto him, Yea, Lord; thou knowest that I love thee. He saith unto him, Feed my sheep. 17 He saith unto him the third time, Simon, son of Jonas, lovest thou me? Peter was grieved because he said unto him the third time, Lovest thou me? And he said unto him, Lord, thou knowest all things; thou knowest that I love thee.

This passage is almost meaningless in the King James Bible (and most if not all other English translations), because of deficiencies in the English language.  The translators chose not to indicate that the word "love" is actually two different words in the Greek (phileo and agape).  I don't see how you can fully understand this passage without knowing what was going on in this conversation, and that depends on a knowledge of the Greek words being used for "love".

Therefore the King James Bible (and most other translations) are the imperfect word of God.  They fail to communicate what is probably the most crucial part of this passage. 

This is a common problem with English.  There are tenses in the Greek that do not translate well (or at all) into English, and thus important meaning is lost.  For example:

8 For by grace are ye saved through faith;

"Are" is actually a tense that would be more accurately translated as "are having been".  But translators find that too awkward and go for the easy translation. 

Personally, I don't see how any English translation could be considered the "perfect" word of God, King James or otherwise.  If there's an English translation out there that goes to the trouble of communicating the differences in the Greek, I don't know of it.  Perhaps someone can enlighten me..
I don't know if the use of different forms of love necessarily mean as much as many imply because phileo love is used in other passages where it seems to be interchangaeble with agape love.  It seems to me the logical interpretation is Jesus was emphasizing Peter's responsibility to feed the flock over which he would be the undershepherd.  That is exactly what Peter did (1 Peter 5:1-4).

1Cor 16:22 If anyone does not love (phileo) the Lord, a curse be on him. Maranatha that is, Lord, come!

John 5:20 For the Father loves (phileo) the Son and shows Him everything He is doing, and He will show Him greater works than these so that you will be amazed.

John 16:27 For the Father Himself loves you, because you have loved (phileo) Me and have believed that I came from God.


 
biscuit1953 said:
The Rogue Tomato said:
15 So when they had dined, Jesus saith to Simon Peter, Simon, son of Jonas, lovest thou me more than these? He saith unto him, Yea, Lord; thou knowest that I love thee. He saith unto him, Feed my lambs. 16 He saith to him again the second time, Simon, son of Jonas, lovest thou me? He saith unto him, Yea, Lord; thou knowest that I love thee. He saith unto him, Feed my sheep. 17 He saith unto him the third time, Simon, son of Jonas, lovest thou me? Peter was grieved because he said unto him the third time, Lovest thou me? And he said unto him, Lord, thou knowest all things; thou knowest that I love thee.

This passage is almost meaningless in the King James Bible (and most if not all other English translations), because of deficiencies in the English language.  The translators chose not to indicate that the word "love" is actually two different words in the Greek (phileo and agape).  I don't see how you can fully understand this passage without knowing what was going on in this conversation, and that depends on a knowledge of the Greek words being used for "love".

Therefore the King James Bible (and most other translations) are the imperfect word of God.  They fail to communicate what is probably the most crucial part of this passage. 

This is a common problem with English.  There are tenses in the Greek that do not translate well (or at all) into English, and thus important meaning is lost.  For example:

8 For by grace are ye saved through faith;

"Are" is actually a tense that would be more accurately translated as "are having been".  But translators find that too awkward and go for the easy translation. 

Personally, I don't see how any English translation could be considered the "perfect" word of God, King James or otherwise.  If there's an English translation out there that goes to the trouble of communicating the differences in the Greek, I don't know of it.  Perhaps someone can enlighten me..
I don't know if the use of different forms of love necessarily mean as much as many imply because phileo love is used in other passages where it seems to be interchangaeble with agape love.  It seems to me the logical interpretation is Jesus was emphasizing Peter's responsibility to feed the flock over which he would be the undershepherd.  That is exactly what Peter did (1 Peter 5:1-4).

1Cor 16:22 If anyone does not love (phileo) the Lord, a curse be on him. Maranatha that is, Lord, come!

John 5:20 For the Father loves (phileo) the Son and shows Him everything He is doing, and He will show Him greater works than these so that you will be amazed.

John 16:27 For the Father Himself loves you, because you have loved (phileo) Me and have believed that I came from God.

The following makes no sense unless you know that Jesus switched from agape to phileo the third time.

Peter was grieved because he said unto him the third time, Lovest thou me?

In English, you have to wonder, what was Peter grieved about?  Jesus said the same thing the first two times.

An abridged paraphrase of the conversation would go like this:  Jesus asked Peter, "do you love me with unconditional sacrificial love?"  Peter replied, "I love you like a brother".  Jesus asked Peter, "do you love me with unconditional sacrificial love?"  Peter replied, "I love you like a brother".  Jesus asked Peter, "do you love me like a brother?"  Peter was grieved because the third time, Jesus scaled back his question to brotherly love. 

That aspect of the conversation is entirely absent in English.

No translation - not even the King James Bible - can be the perfect word of God if it leaves out crucial information.
 
The Rogue Tomato said:
biscuit1953 said:
The Rogue Tomato said:
15 So when they had dined, Jesus saith to Simon Peter, Simon, son of Jonas, lovest thou me more than these? He saith unto him, Yea, Lord; thou knowest that I love thee. He saith unto him, Feed my lambs. 16 He saith to him again the second time, Simon, son of Jonas, lovest thou me? He saith unto him, Yea, Lord; thou knowest that I love thee. He saith unto him, Feed my sheep. 17 He saith unto him the third time, Simon, son of Jonas, lovest thou me? Peter was grieved because he said unto him the third time, Lovest thou me? And he said unto him, Lord, thou knowest all things; thou knowest that I love thee.

This passage is almost meaningless in the King James Bible (and most if not all other English translations), because of deficiencies in the English language.  The translators chose not to indicate that the word "love" is actually two different words in the Greek (phileo and agape).  I don't see how you can fully understand this passage without knowing what was going on in this conversation, and that depends on a knowledge of the Greek words being used for "love".

Therefore the King James Bible (and most other translations) are the imperfect word of God.  They fail to communicate what is probably the most crucial part of this passage. 

This is a common problem with English.  There are tenses in the Greek that do not translate well (or at all) into English, and thus important meaning is lost.  For example:

8 For by grace are ye saved through faith;

"Are" is actually a tense that would be more accurately translated as "are having been".  But translators find that too awkward and go for the easy translation. 

Personally, I don't see how any English translation could be considered the "perfect" word of God, King James or otherwise.  If there's an English translation out there that goes to the trouble of communicating the differences in the Greek, I don't know of it.  Perhaps someone can enlighten me..
I don't know if the use of different forms of love necessarily mean as much as many imply because phileo love is used in other passages where it seems to be interchangaeble with agape love.  It seems to me the logical interpretation is Jesus was emphasizing Peter's responsibility to feed the flock over which he would be the undershepherd.  That is exactly what Peter did (1 Peter 5:1-4).

1Cor 16:22 If anyone does not love (phileo) the Lord, a curse be on him. Maranatha that is, Lord, come!

John 5:20 For the Father loves (phileo) the Son and shows Him everything He is doing, and He will show Him greater works than these so that you will be amazed.

John 16:27 For the Father Himself loves you, because you have loved (phileo) Me and have believed that I came from God.

The following makes no sense unless you know that Jesus switched from agape to phileo the third time.

Peter was grieved because he said unto him the third time, Lovest thou me?

In English, you have to wonder, what was Peter grieved about?  Jesus said the same thing the first two times.

An abridged paraphrase of the conversation would go like this:  Jesus asked Peter, "do you love me with unconditional sacrificial love?"  Peter replied, "I love you like a brother".  Jesus asked Peter, "do you love me with unconditional sacrificial love?"  Peter replied, "I love you like a brother".  Jesus asked Peter, "do you love me like a brother?"  Peter was grieved because the third time, Jesus scaled back his question to brotherly love. 

That aspect of the conversation is entirely absent in English.

No translation - not even the King James Bible - can be the perfect word of God if it leaves out crucial information.

Brings to mind, "Study to shew thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth."

Clearly the way things are presented asis can create some issues with understanding. But, when one studies the passage ... well, I suppose the Holy Spirit brings things to light.
 
Really?  Try this:

I love pizza.
I love my dog.
I love my wife.

Would even a middle-schooler understand the difference in love between the three?  I would think so.
 
Binaca Chugger said:
Really?  Try this:

I love pizza.
I love my dog.
I love my wife.

Would even a middle-schooler understand the difference in love between the three?  I would think so.
I was merely pointing out how phileo love is used interchangeably with agape love.  It just seemed to me Jesus was making an emphasis on if Peter really loved him whether using more than one sense or not, He was telling Peter to feed or teach the church.  I won't dispute it either way.

1Cor 16:22 If anyone does not love (phileo) the Lord, a curse be on him. Maranatha that is, Lord, come!

John 5:20 For the Father loves (phileo) the Son and shows Him everything He is doing, and He will show Him greater works than these so that you will be amazed.

John 16:27 For the Father Himself loves you, because you have loved (phileo) Me and have believed that I came from God.

 
biscuit1953 said:
Binaca Chugger said:
Really?  Try this:

I love pizza.
I love my dog.
I love my wife.

Would even a middle-schooler understand the difference in love between the three?  I would think so.
I was merely pointing out how phileo love is used interchangeably with agape love.  It just seemed to me Jesus was making an emphasis on if Peter really loved him whether using more than one sense or not, He was telling Peter to feed or teach the church.  I won't dispute it either way.

1Cor 16:22 If anyone does not love (phileo) the Lord, a curse be on him. Maranatha that is, Lord, come!

John 5:20 For the Father loves (phileo) the Son and shows Him everything He is doing, and He will show Him greater works than these so that you will be amazed.

John 16:27 For the Father Himself loves you, because you have loved (phileo) Me and have believed that I came from God.

Oh.  Somewhat agreed.  My original post was directed to the OP of this thread. 

I believe the passage has multiple implications.  We could imply that Peter had not yet returned unto Christ, like unto the nation of Israel in Amos.  We could imply that Jesus was teaching to love Christ by loving others.  We could imply that Peter did not have a deep enough love for Christ.  We could imply that Jesus wants a deeper relationship from each of us.
 
You've missed the point by such a distance that it has left me speechless. 
 
The Rogue Tomato said:
You've missed the point by such a distance that it has left me speechless.

I don't think so.  The OP claims that because the same word "love" is used to represent different words (phileo and agape), the KJV is incorrect and therefore all incorrect versions should be held in the same esteem.  My response is that even children understand the different connotations to our word "love."  Hence, it is not really inaccurate as you claim.  It may be that an understanding of the Greek helps to clarify the passage for exegesis, but does not render the KJ translation inaccurate.
 
Binaca Chugger said:
The Rogue Tomato said:
You've missed the point by such a distance that it has left me speechless.

I don't think so.  The OP claims that because the same word "love" is used to represent different words (phileo and agape), the KJV is incorrect and therefore all incorrect versions should be held in the same esteem.  My response is that even children understand the different connotations to our word "love."  Hence, it is not really inaccurate as you claim.  It may be that an understanding of the Greek helps to clarify the passage for exegesis, but does not render the KJ translation inaccurate.

Maybe you should read more than the OP, then. I repeat: In English, you have to wonder, what was Peter grieved about when Jesus asked if he loved him the third time?  In English, Jesus said the same thing all three times.

An abridged paraphrase of the conversation, expanding upon the Greek, would go like this: 

1. Jesus asked Peter, "do you love me with unconditional sacrificial love?"  Peter, knowing he denied Christ, couldn't bring himself to say he loved Jesus with unconditional sacrificial love, and replied, "I love you like a brother".
 
2. Jesus asked Peter, "do you love me with unconditional sacrificial love?"  Peter replied, "I love you like a brother". 

3. Jesus asked Peter, "do you love me like a brother?" 

Peter was grieved because the third time, Jesus scaled back his question to brotherly love.

That aspect of the conversation is entirely absent in English.

No translation - not even the King James Bible - can be the perfect word of God if it leaves out crucial information like this.

 
The Rogue Tomato said:
Binaca Chugger said:
The Rogue Tomato said:
You've missed the point by such a distance that it has left me speechless.

I don't think so.  The OP claims that because the same word "love" is used to represent different words (phileo and agape), the KJV is incorrect and therefore all incorrect versions should be held in the same esteem.  My response is that even children understand the different connotations to our word "love."  Hence, it is not really inaccurate as you claim.  It may be that an understanding of the Greek helps to clarify the passage for exegesis, but does not render the KJ translation inaccurate.

Maybe you should read more than the OP, then. I repeat: In English, you have to wonder, what was Peter grieved about when Jesus asked if he loved him the third time?  In English, Jesus said the same thing all three times.

An abridged paraphrase of the conversation, expanding upon the Greek, would go like this: 

1. Jesus asked Peter, "do you love me with unconditional sacrificial love?"  Peter, knowing he denied Christ, couldn't bring himself to say he loved Jesus with unconditional sacrificial love, and replied, "I love you like a brother".
 
2. Jesus asked Peter, "do you love me with unconditional sacrificial love?"  Peter replied, "I love you like a brother". 

3. Jesus asked Peter, "do you love me like a brother?" 

Peter was grieved because the third time, Jesus scaled back his question to brotherly love.

That aspect of the conversation is entirely absent in English.

No translation - not even the King James Bible - can be the perfect word of God if it leaves out crucial information like this.

Even an English synonyms can have slightly varying meaning. I would never say that phileo and agape are synonyms.... but even if they are, there is still plenty of room to recognize the differences between the two.

To answer Biscuits questions concerning their interchanging use.....

phileo is found only 25 times in the KJV where as agape is found 142 times.

The very fact that we see a large difference between how many times they're used relative to one another, indicates there is a difference in meaning between the two. In my opinion, phileo is better seen in an affectionate light. Not necessarily "brotherly love" verses "unconditional love".

 
christundivided said:
Even an English synonyms can have slightly varying meaning. I would never say that phileo and agape are synonyms.... but even if they are, there is still plenty of room to recognize the differences between the two.

To answer Biscuits questions concerning their interchanging use.....

phileo is found only 25 times in the KJV where as agape is found 142 times.

The very fact that we see a large difference between how many times they're used relative to one another, indicates there is a difference in meaning between the two. In my opinion, phileo is better seen in an affectionate light. Not necessarily "brotherly love" verses "unconditional love".

Way to miss the point.  The choices of phileo and agape in the conversation between Jesus and Peter were very deliberate, and Peter was grieved when Jesus changed the word he used.  The fact that this information is missing from the KJV and most (if not all) English translations proves that the KJV cannot possibly be the perfect word of God. 

The silence from the notorious group of FFF KJVOs on this is deafening. 

 
The Rogue Tomato said:
christundivided said:
Even an English synonyms can have slightly varying meaning. I would never say that phileo and agape are synonyms.... but even if they are, there is still plenty of room to recognize the differences between the two.

To answer Biscuits questions concerning their interchanging use.....

phileo is found only 25 times in the KJV where as agape is found 142 times.

The very fact that we see a large difference between how many times they're used relative to one another, indicates there is a difference in meaning between the two. In my opinion, phileo is better seen in an affectionate light. Not necessarily "brotherly love" verses "unconditional love".

Way to miss the point.  The choices of phileo and agape in the conversation between Jesus and Peter were very deliberate, and Peter was grieved when Jesus changed the word he used.  The fact that this information is missing from the KJV and most (if not all) English translations proves that the KJV cannot possibly be the perfect word of God. 

The silence from the notorious group of FFF KJVOs on this is deafening.

I only mentioned the differences between the word? For the most part, I agree with your statement. I jut believe you're defining phileo wrong. Phileo is more of an affectionate love. Not necessarily brotherly love.
 
The Rogue Tomato said:
...
The following makes no sense unless you know that Jesus switched from agape to phileo the third time.

Peter was grieved because he said unto him the third time, Lovest thou me?

In English, you have to wonder, what was Peter grieved about?  Jesus said the same thing the first two times.
'''
That aspect of the conversation is entirely absent in English.
No translation - not even the King James Bible - can be the perfect word of God if it leaves out crucial information.

The likelihood that Jesus, a Jew, was speaking in Greek to Peter, also a Jew, is minimal. John most likely translated the conversation, so, the so called original is most likely a translation itself.

Apparently you were so enamored with the Greek you failed to stop and take note that John the Apostle informs us that Jesus said the same thing three times as noted by the words of John and the thoughts of Peter. Note verse 17: "He saith unto him the third time..." and "...he said unto him the third time, Lovest thou me?" Jesus not only said the same thing the first two time, but all THREE TIMES - so says the Scripture as recorded by John.  If you were confused by the Greek, try the English, Spanish, Polish or whatever other language you truly understand.

 
admin said:
Welcome Mitex!

Since the passage was written in Greek and declared to be the very breath of God... all speculations about some unknown original is fanciful.

Not any more fanciful than assuming that the original Gospel of John was written originally in Greek. Having said that I won't argue that particular point as it is indeed speculation on the side of all parties. Would you care to address the salient point that the Scriptures in any language tell us that Jesus said the SAME THING three times despite the use of different words in the Greek Scriptures?

Apparently you were so enamored with the Greek you failed to stop and take note that John the Apostle informs us that Jesus said the same thing three times as noted by the words of John and the thoughts of Peter. Note verse 17: "He saith unto him the third time..." and "...he said unto him the third time, Lovest thou me?" Jesus not only said the same thing the first two times, but all THREE TIMES - so says the Scripture as recorded by John.  If you were confused by the Greek, try the English, Spanish, Polish or whatever other language you truly understand.

P.S.
In summary it should be noted that aside from Origen, who saw a distinction in the meaning of the two words, most of the Greek Fathers like Chrysostom and Cyril of Alexandria, saw no real difference of meaning. Neither did Augustine nor the translators of the Itala (Old Latin). This was also the view of the Reformation Greek scholars Erasmus and Grotius. The suggestion that we should see a distinction in meaning comes primarily from a number of British scholars of the nineteenth century, especially Trench, Westcott, and Plummer. It has been picked up by others such as Spicq, Lenski, and Hendriksen. But most modern scholars decline to see a real difference in the meaning of the two words in this context, among them Bernard, Moffatt, Bonsirven, Bultmann, Barrett, Brown, Morris, Haenchen, and Beasley-Murray.

There are three significant reasons for seeing no real difference in the meaning of ajgapavw and filevw in these verses:

    the Evangelist has a habit of introducing slight stylistic variations in repeated material without any significant difference in meaning (compare, for example, 3:3 with 3:5, and 7:34 with 13:33). An examination of the uses of ajgapavw and filevw in the Fourth Gospel seems to indicate a general interchangeability between the two. Both terms are used of God’s love for man (3:16, 16:27); of the Father’s love for the Son (3:35, 5:20); of Jesus’ love for men (11:5, 11:3); of the love of men for men (13:34, 15:19); and of the love of men for Jesus (8:42, 16:27).
    If (as seems probable) the original conversation took place in Aramaic (or possibly Hebrew), there would not have been any difference expressed because both Aramaic and Hebrew have only one basic word for love, bha. In the LXX both ajgapavw and filevw are used to translate bha, although ajgapavw is more frequent. It is significant that in the Syriac version of the NT only one verb is used to translate verses 15-17 (Syriac is very similar linguistically to Palestinian Aramaic).
    Peter’s answers to the questions asked with ajgapavw are ‘yes’ even though he answers using the verb filevw. If he is being asked to love Jesus on a higher or more spiritual level his answers give no indication of this, and we would be forced to say (in order to maintain a consistent distinction between the two verbs) that Jesus finally concedes defeat and accepts only the lower form of love which is all that Peter is capable of offering!

Thus it seems best to regard the interchange between ajgapavw and filevw in these verses as a minor stylistic variation of the Evangelist, consistent with his use of minor variations in repeated material elsewhere, and not indicative of any real difference in meaning.
https://bible.org/seriespage/exegetical-commentary-john-21
 
admin said:
Mitex said:
Not any more fanciful than assuming that the original Gospel of John was written originally in Greek. Having said that I won't argue that particular point as it is indeed speculation on the side of all parties.

There is no speculation on my side. If preservation means anything at all, then you undermine it by suggesting that the originals were not preserved.

Your tangent into preservation is clearly a clever and subtle debate tactic. I made no such suggestion, but now that you bring it up, do you have the originals? That's what I thought. ALL scholars agree that the originals are no longer extant, they are in fact not preserved. Certainly not in their original state. Did you mean the meaning or original intent of the author is preserved in extant copies and translations in the form that God wants us to have today? In that case English Bible believers can make the same claim in face of the scholar's taunts just as John Bunyan did long ago:
A university man met Bunyan on the road near Cambridge. Said he to Bunyan, “How dare you preach, not having the original Scriptures?” “Do you have them–the copies written by the apostles and prophets?” asked Bunyan. “No,” replied the scholar. “But I have what I believe to be a true copy of the original.” “And I,” said Bunyan, “believe the English Bible to be a true copy, too.” John Bunyan The Immortal Dreamer, W. Burgess McCreary, The Warner Press, 1928, pg. 38 https://brentandjaniceriggs.wordpress.com/2012/07/02/john-bunyan/

It is silly to suggest that Jesus would not be speaking in Greek to Peter.
It is only silly in your simplistic mind and your determined intent to find fault with the English Bible (and other Bibles as well). I quote the scholars:

"If (as seems probable) the original conversation took place in Aramaic (or possibly Hebrew), there would not have been any difference expressed because both Aramaic and Hebrew have only one basic word for love."  Exegetical Commentary, Bible.org.

Admin wrote:
Would you care to address the salient point that the Scriptures in any language tell us that Jesus said the SAME THING three times despite the use of different words in the Greek Scriptures?

I do not take a strong position on the meaning/interpretation one way or another. But what is obvious is this...

Two different words were used. A difference typically lost in English translations, but at least attempted by the NIV.

You failed to take note that the Scriptures in any language or edition state clearly that Jesus said the SAME THING three times despite the use of different words in the extant Greek Scriptures. The NIV that I have reads, "Do you love me" three times. Is this another one of your tangents? Proper and valid translations can translate multiple original words into the target language with one word. Any impartial translator knows this.

Admin wrote:
Apparently you were so enamored with the Greek...

Apparently you are so enamored with a "lost" text that you do not allow for even the possibility of a different nuance between two different words.
Another tangent. I made no reference to "a lost text". I did take note that the extant texts we do possess are most likely translations themselves - even the Greek copies.


Admin wrote:
... you failed to stop and take note that John the Apostle informs us that Jesus said the same thing three times as noted by the words of John and the thoughts of Peter. understand.

The failure is yours to insist that there is no possible difference in nuance.

Another subtle debate tactic. I insisted no such thing, but since we off on this tangent may I say that valid translations are not required to translate "every nuance". Translating every nuance would make the translation unintelligible even to your great mind. Translations are required to be honest, true, accurate, complete and impartial. Most translations of this text have done that and certainly the translators of our English Scriptures did so. 

Admin wrote:
I will say that Rogue is overplaying this, but his point is valid on at least one level... an English translation can never capture every nuance of the Greek source.

Translating from one language to another ALWAYS involves interpretation and this is a classic example.
Rogue and others like him are arrogant in their attitude toward the English Scriptures. They presume it upon themselves to find fault with the English Scriptures when there is no fault to be found.

Wow, what a profound statement, "Translating from one language to another ALWAYS involves interpretation and this is a classic example." Did you figure that out on your own or did you read it somewhere?

Again valid translations are not required, nor should they, translate every nuance. They are only required to translate accurately, honestly, completely and impartially which, as I stated previously, most translators in history have done so with this text. Some of the greatest translators in history and most others translated two Greek words in this text with one English word - love. We are to presume from the argumentation presented in this thread that they were wrong and Rogue and other critics of the English Scripture are right. I'll stick with the English Scriptures. You're welcome.
 
The Rogue Tomato said:
christundivided said:
Even an English synonyms can have slightly varying meaning. I would never say that phileo and agape are synonyms.... but even if they are, there is still plenty of room to recognize the differences between the two.

To answer Biscuits questions concerning their interchanging use.....

phileo is found only 25 times in the KJV where as agape is found 142 times.

The very fact that we see a large difference between how many times they're used relative to one another, indicates there is a difference in meaning between the two. In my opinion, phileo is better seen in an affectionate light. Not necessarily "brotherly love" verses "unconditional love".

Way to miss the point.  The choices of phileo and agape in the conversation between Jesus and Peter were very deliberate, and Peter was grieved when Jesus changed the word he used.  The fact that this information is missing from the KJV and most (if not all) English translations proves that the KJV cannot possibly be the perfect word of God. 

The silence from the notorious group of FFF KJVOs on this is deafening.

Not really.  Most married folks understand it in English quite well.  It goes something like this:

Wife:  "Do you love me?"  (She is looking for deep emotional connection, praise and assurance)
Husband: (busy with a football game, tinkering or some hobby) "Yes.  I love you." 
Wife:  "Do you love me?"  (She did not first receive the desired deep emotion)
Husband:  (still busy with his work) "Yes.  I love you."
Wife:  "So, you just love me."  (This is quite frequently followed by an emotional outburst or accusation of only loving for body, food, work companion, etc - she does not feel deeply appreciated)
Husband:  (grieved) "Look!  I love you.  I love you.  I love you!"

See how that went?  Very similar connotation.  The same word is used.  Even the husband is grieved.  If you are married, you have probably had this conversation.  And, now, we understand the KJV.

English really isn't quite as difficult to decipher as some would make it out to be.
 
Mitex: Your tangent into preservation is clearly a clever and subtle debate tactic. I made no such suggestion, but now that you bring it up, do you have the originals? That's what I thought. ALL scholars agree that the originals are no longer extant, they are in fact not preserved. Certainly not in their original state.[/quote]

FSSL: But you claimed "the so called original is most likely a translation itself." You use a completely different definition of original to obscure what has always been meant. There are no extant mss of an "original" Aramaic John. If you want to call original conversation "the originals" you are just being absurd and obscurant.

MITEX: Did you mean the meaning or original intent of the author is preserved in extant copies and translations in the form that God wants us to have today? In that case English Bible believers can make the same claim in face of the scholar's taunts just as John Bunyan did long ago...[/quote]

FSSL: Nope. I mean that the very words have been preserved in the extant copies. Preservation relates to copies, not translations.

FSSL; It is silly to suggest that Jesus would not be speaking in Greek to Peter.

MITEX: It is only silly in your simplistic mind and your determined intent to find fault with the English Bible (and other Bibles as well). I quote the scholars: "If (as seems probable) the original conversation took place in Aramaic (or possibly Hebrew), there would not have been any difference expressed because both Aramaic and Hebrew have only one basic word for love."  Exegetical Commentary, Bible.org.

FSSL: We cross-posted. I edited this statement out. I do understand that some believe that Jesus and Peter spoke in Aramaic. However, they both knew Greek. Peter wrote in a high-level Greek. So, the Aramaic is an unnecessary speculation. It does nothing to explain the differences in words in John 21.

MITEX: You failed to take note that the Scriptures in any language or edition state clearly that Jesus said the SAME THING three times despite the use of different words in the extant Greek Scriptures. The NIV that I have reads, "Do you love me" three times. Is this another one of your tangents? Proper and valid translations can translate multiple original words into the target language with one word. Any impartial translator knows this.

FSSL: The NIV84. Again, I edited while you were composing. I am not against translations that use multiple words and various words. That is why I HIGHLY recommend VARIOUS modern versions for clarity. Fact is, it does not change the fact that John, for apparent stylistic purposes (maybe even more), used different words with considerable semantic overlap.

MITEX: Rogue and others like him are arrogant in their attitude toward the English Scriptures. They presume it upon themselves to find fault with the English Scriptures when there is no fault to be found.

FSSL: You are arrogant in your attitude toward the Greek Scriptures. It is one thing not to know Greek and Hebrew. It is entirely another beast to carry a chip on your shoulder against them.

MITEX: Again valid translations are not required, nor should they, translate every nuance.

FSSL: Which is why Rogue, in the OP clearly said that no translation can be considered perfect.
 
[quote author=Mitex]Your tangent into preservation is clearly a clever and subtle debate tactic. I made no such suggestion, but now that you bring it up, do you have the originals? That's what I thought. ALL scholars agree that the originals are no longer extant, they are in fact not preserved. Certainly not in their original state. Did you mean the meaning or original intent of the author is preserved in extant copies and translations in the form that God wants us to have today?[/quote]

An argument about preservation means nothing until both sides agree on what they mean by preservation.

[quote author=Mitex]In that case English Bible believers can make the same claim in face of the scholar's taunts just as John Bunyan did long ago:
A university man met Bunyan on the road near Cambridge. Said he to Bunyan, “How dare you preach, not having the original Scriptures?” “Do you have them–the copies written by the apostles and prophets?” asked Bunyan. “No,” replied the scholar. “But I have what I believe to be a true copy of the original.” “And I,” said Bunyan, “believe the English Bible to be a true copy, too.” John Bunyan The Immortal Dreamer, W. Burgess McCreary, The Warner Press, 1928, pg. 38
[/quote]

And I would fully agree with Bunyan. I don't care if you have a KJV, an NIV, an ESV, a Vulgate, a Reina-Valera, or any other of the myriad of translations. They are all true copies in so much as they faithfully relay the information the original authors intended.

[quote author=Mitex]
It is silly to suggest that Jesus would not be speaking in Greek to Peter.
It is only silly in your simplistic mind and your determined intent to find fault with the English Bible (and other Bibles as well). I quote the scholars:

"If (as seems probable) the original conversation took place in Aramaic (or possibly Hebrew), there would not have been any difference expressed because both Aramaic and Hebrew have only one basic word for love."  Exegetical Commentary, Bible.org.[/quote]

Actually, Jesus would have been just as likely to be speaking Greek as Hebrew or, for that matter, Latin.  Aramaic was, by far, the most commonly spoken language, Hebrew was the language of the religious elites, Greek the political elites, and Latin of the common Roman soldiers.

And, no, there are different words for our English idea for love in Hebrew, about seven actually. You need to toss that commentary in the garbage if those types of claims are commonplace.

[quote author=Mitex]You failed to take note that the Scriptures in any language or edition state clearly that Jesus said the SAME THING three times despite the use of different words in the extant Greek Scriptures. The NIV that I have reads, "Do you love me" three times. Is this another one of your tangents? Proper and valid translations can translate multiple original words into the target language with one word. Any impartial translator knows this. [/quote]

And people can say the same thing using different words. My five year old understands that.

[quote author=Mitex]Another tangent. I made no reference to "a lost text". I did take note that the extant texts we do possess are most likely translations themselves - even the Greek copies. [/quote]

Of course it is a possibility. Whether this idea has any historical backing at all is another matter...

[quote author=Mitex]Another subtle debate tactic. I insisted no such thing, but since we off on this tangent may I say that valid translations are not required to translate "every nuance". Translating every nuance would make the translation unintelligible even to your great mind. Translations are required to be honest, true, accurate, complete and impartial. Most translations of this text have done that and certainly the translators of our English Scriptures did so.  [/quote]

So translations are required to meet an impossible standard?

[quote author=Mitex]Rogue and others like him are arrogant in their attitude toward the English Scriptures. They presume it upon themselves to find fault with the English Scriptures when there is no fault to be found.

Wow, what a profound statement, "Translating from one language to another ALWAYS involves interpretation and this is a classic example." Did you figure that out on your own or did you read it somewhere?

Again valid translations are not required, nor should they, translate every nuance. They are only required to translate accurately, honestly, completely and impartially which, as I stated previously, most translators in history have done so with this text. Some of the greatest translators in history and most others translated two Greek words in this text with one English word - love. We are to presume from the argumentation presented in this thread that they were wrong and Rogue and other critics of the English Scripture are right. I'll stick with the English Scriptures. You're welcome.[/quote]

I'm assuming you know nothing at all about translation? It's also pretty apparent that you most definitely only speak a single language because anyone with any understanding at all of linguistics knows better than this.
 
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