FSSL said:
Nope, you just made another vain attempt to put
your words in my mouth. A common tactic of yours.
FSSL said:
You were the one who told us to only use the language of Scripture. Now look at you! Quite amazing contortions and abuse of Scripture. You have ignored the clear language of Scripture and somehow contort it to allow for Sabellianism.
I told you what? I didn't say use the language of scripture, but to use some scripture. Other than that, I gave my perception of Stephen Avery's answers. I am not the one who has ignored the "clear language" of scripture, cause I can count and 2 does not equal 3. Having actually spent time speaking with Arianists and defending the gospel of Christ, I do have the benefit of experience in how they will answer. Believe it or not, they tend to read 1John, too.
FSSL said:
A person is NOT able to deny the teaching found in this passage and claim to be a genuine believer.
I agree, wholeheartedly.
FSSL said:
There is a CLEAR distinction of persons between the Son and the Father expressed in this passage.
You think so? Not without 1John 5:7,8. In light of the Comma, I do believe that there is a distinction, but others who do not agree with that will see parallel passages that allow for modalism or adoptionism as valid explanations of 1John 2:22-25. And considering John 14:7-11, and even more telling John 14:20-24, they can make a pretty persuasive argument. Simply, the only way you can limit this passage is to go outside of scripture and force your theological word definitions upon the passage (which is what you are trying to do), or use parallel passages that support the concept more plainly than what others believe. John 10:30 is a good place for that. 1Cor 12 is also valuable. But you lack biblical familiarity and lean much more heavily to your god, Calvin, and his disciples.
FSSL said:
There is also a clear profession of the Deity of Christ and the Father.
I will agree. But the issue is not about the deity, but Trinity.
FSSL said:
You missed the Holy Spirit in verse 20.
Nope, you missed it. Do you find anywhere in your post you referenced it? And yes, I did see it since I read the entire passage for context before my first post. But as you can see, verse 20 only states that we have an unction from "the Holy One." Unlike the uniting of the Son and the Father, it treats Him separately. Like the baptism of Jesus where you have the Father speaking from heaven, the Son in the water, and the Holy Spirit appearing in the form of a dove, you have a display of the Three, but nothing in the passage linking all 3 in homoosious. My faith is that it is a serious error to make theological demands without clear scriptural justification. You claim it as clear, but as you have often done in the past, your claim is empty and very clearly bogus. A modalist or adoptionist can use the passage without the slightest hesitation. The burden you have is to show from the scripture by proper interpretive method that their interpretation of the passage is wrong and that the Father and Son (in this passage) are spoken of consubstantially.
FSSL said:
We understand what is happening here. Steven is a KJVO. He gets the "Get Out of Defending His Error" pass. Strangely, you are giving him an "I agree with how Sabellians use this Scripture" pass as well. The antichrist is using you to help a person remain in their antagonism against the true nature of the Godhead.
No, Mr. Avery may be KJVO, but he is explaining his belief from scripture, not using your theological terms only found outside of scripture. That is NOT an error. If anyone is in error here, it is you that have full well rejected the LORD's words and do not keep His sayings (see John 14:20-24) but instead twist and corrupt in order to falsely accuse, and add your idolatrous traditions alongside (if not superior to) the Bible. Simply put, you hate the brethren, and would put the match to the stake if it were in your power to do so.