The capricious interpretation of Bibleprotector and his claims to KJVOism

Luke 23:46
And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said,
Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit:
and having said thus, he gave up the ghost.

John 19:34 
But one of the soldiers with a spear pierced his side,
and forthwith came there out blood and water.

1 John 5:7-8 
For there are three that bear record in heaven,
the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost:
and these three are one.

And there are three that bear witness in earth,
the spirit, and the water, and the blood:
and these three agree in one.


FSSL said:
  Yes. Luke 23:46 has proper capitalization.

Do you think the interpreters who saw the spirit of 1 John 5:8 as relating to that Lukan verse make any sense? 

If so, capitalization of 1 John 5:8 would force an improper sense and create an inconsistency in the NT.

 
Steven Avery said:
Do you think the interpreters who saw the spirit of 1 John 5:8 as relating to that Lukan verse make any sense?


Not at all. I do not see an allusion back to Luke at all in 1 John 5:8.
The testifying Spirit in 5:8 has already been identified in 1 John 5:6.
 
FSSL said:
Not at all. I do not see an allusion back to Luke at all in 1 John 5:8.

I agree.

FSSL said:
The testifying Spirit in 5:8 has already been identified in 1 John 5:6.

The immediate context of verse 8 shows that three things are mentioned, not persons. Of course if you chop out verse 7, you might exacerbate your problem. But verse 9 shows what is going on,

1Jo 5:9a If we receive the witness of men, the witness of God is greater

Ro 8:16 The Spirit itself beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God:

And so, that is why 1 John 5:8 has "spirit", because it is the operation of the Holy Ghost to the human spirit, of the nature of spirit.

See also this verse:

1Co 2:12 Now we have received, not the spirit of the world, but the spirit which is of God; that we might know the things that are freely given to us of God.
 
We won't agree on 1 john 5:8.

So, let me step back for a second on the issue, overall. Do you believe that whenever lowercase "spirit" is used, it always refers to the inner  man vis-a-vis uppercase "Spirit" always referring to the Holy Spirit?

Or... do you allow for a persistent, non-standardization in the KJVs when it comes to capitalization?
 
FSSL said:
We won't agree on 1 john 5:8.

So, let me step back for a second on the issue, overall. Do you believe that whenever lowercase "spirit" is used, it always refers to the inner  man vis-a-vis uppercase "Spirit" always referring to the Holy Spirit?

Or... do you allow for a persistent, non-standardization in the KJVs when it comes to capitalization?

You have presented a false dilemma. Your options are:
a. The word "Spirit" means Holy Ghost, the word "spirit" does not mean deity.
b. KJB editions are arbitrary in their usage, and there is no standardised form.

The actual case is:

1. The word "Spirit" refers to the same Person as the Holy Ghost.
2. The capital and lower case forms were not entirely standardised, but are now intentional and deliberate in the editions of the KJB, and that the exemplary standard is the PCE which generally follows the 1769 Edition.

The conclusion is that the lower case "spirit" can also refer to God, a work of God, the nature of God, etc. This is missing in modern versions, and eradicated in modern thinking (in similar manner like how distinctions between ye and you, or between ye and thou are now absent).
 
FSSL said:
The problem resides in your statements... vague, elusive and unclear.

Bible"protector" probably thinks he's being persecuted like Jesus by Pharisees who are trying to set a trap for him.

He probably also thinks his evasive, weaselish non-answers actually stump or embarrass his questioners into silence.
 
bibleprotector said:
A word starting with the letter G is not the same as a word starting with the letter S.

Anyone even vaguely informed on the question knows that both "Ghost" and "Spirit" are translations of the same Greek word, pneuma. They may also be aware that "Ghost" comes from the Old English word gast, and "Spirit" from the Latin spiritus, and that both terms are synonymous.

Bible"protector" needs to stop playing the weasel and give a straight answer: is the Holy Ghost the same divine person as the Holy Spirit, or not?
 
SAWBONES said:
If you refuse to discuss the details of your beliefs about purported differences between spirit, Spirit and Ghost as written in the KJV, then there's nothing we can discuss.

How can your assurances be taken seriously, when you state there is a refusal to discuss implying some sort of deliberately bad motives (e.g. "refuse")?

How can your question topics be justly answered when you editorialise them as "purported"?

You want to put the spotlight onto what I believe, asking in such a way as if your view must be correct, and mine the aberration. That's not how to "discuss" anything. I realise that genuine discussion does not mean agreeing. But it seems ill to have an approach which is of readiness to disagree or be contentious.

The framework for addressing the issues you raise actually is founded on the idea that every word and letter in the Bible is important, and that there is significance to them.

The foundational issue is to consider the actual reasons or motive why you would reject that the wording and letters in the correct edition of the KJB are not perfect. I think it is because of the influence of the philosophy of rationalism, because I think that Reformation thinking proper would lead to English-perfectionist thinking.

Objectively, you could look at why did the KJB translators choose "Ghost" at one place but "Spirit" at another, or why did editors choose "Spirit" sometimes, but then "spirit" at others. However, that approach is only analytical, and not actually doctrinal.
 
Ransom said:
Anyone even vaguely informed on the question knows that both "Ghost" and "Spirit" are translations of the same Greek word, pneuma. They may also be aware that "Ghost" comes from the Old English word gast, and "Spirit" from the Latin spiritus, and that both terms are synonymous.

Of course, we have differences in English which are misunderstood by modernists who claim to see only "pneuma".

Joh 3:8 The wind bloweth where it listeth, and thou hearest the sound thereof, but canst not tell whence it cometh, and whither it goeth: so is every one that is born of the Spirit.

Ransom said:
Bible"protector" needs to stop playing the weasel and give a straight answer: is the Holy Ghost the same divine person as the Holy Spirit, or not?

You need to stop fabricating. Clearly (as I have maintained all along) the Holy Ghost is the same person as the Holy Spirit, the third member of the Trinity. Why this concerted attack as though such an issue is questionable?
 
bibleprotector said:
Of course, we have differences in English which are misunderstood by modernists who claim to see only "pneuma".

Give up the straw men. Understanding the Scriptures in the language they were originally written in is not a "modernist" thing at all.

You need to stop fabricating. Clearly (as I have maintained all along) the Holy Ghost is the same person as the Holy Spirit, the third member of the Trinity. Why this concerted attack as though such an issue is questionable?

It's less that the attack is concerted, than that your sophistry is obvious to all.
 
Ransom said:
Give up the straw men. Understanding the Scriptures in the language they were originally written in is not a "modernist" thing at all.

Yet it is practised by modernists and central to their view.

Of course, Paul's original audience understood the language in which they were written in.

So the issue is the modernistic approach which examines with modern terms of reference the components of interpreting Scripture.
 
bibleprotector said:
Yet it is practised by modernists and central to their view.

Those dastardly modernists! I hear they also drive cars and eat vegetables.

So the issue is the modernistic approach which examines with modern terms of reference the components of interpreting Scripture.

The issue is ambiguous and evasive definitions, such as the one you are using for "modernist." The term "modernist" when employed by a KJV-onlyist, for example, usually means nothing more than "someone who is not a KJV-onlyist like me."
 
Ransom said:
The issue is ambiguous and evasive definitions, such as the one you are using for "modernist."

Other synonymous terms could be used, like compromised Christians or the lukewarm.

Ransom said:
The term "modernist" when employed by a KJV-onlyist, for example, usually means nothing more than "someone who is not a KJV-onlyist like me."

The key word there is "usually".

There is also a difference among those who are against the perfection of the KJB. On these kinds of forums, I think I am dealing with true modernists, not just as a pejorative term for non-KJBOs.
 
bibleprotector said:
Other synonymous terms could be used, like compromised Christians or the lukewarm.

Ah, OK . . . so different terms are synonymous, as long as you say they are.

The key word there is "usually".

I have yet to see evidence that you are anything but the usual kind, yes.

There is also a difference among those who are against the perfection of the KJB. On these kinds of forums, I think I am dealing with true modernists

As usual, however, no evidence given in support, and your definition of "modernist" remains conveniently flexible.
 
Ransom said:
As usual, however, no evidence given in support, and your definition of "modernist" remains conveniently flexible.

I refer you to my material on my website and my youtube channel, which shows the definition is not "flexible" but far reaching, i.e. embracing much of "Christianity", even much of Calvinism, Evangelicalism and Charismaticism.
 
bibleprotector said:
FSSL said:
...So, let me step back for a second on the issue, overall. Do you believe that whenever lowercase "spirit" is used, it always refers to the inner  man vis-a-vis uppercase "Spirit" always referring to the Holy Spirit?

Or... do you allow for a persistent, non-standardization in the KJVs when it comes to capitalization?

...

The conclusion is that the lower case "spirit" can also refer to God, a work of God, the nature of God, etc. This is missing in modern versions, and eradicated in modern thinking...

If that's a conclusion, it's not an explanation.

Why, in the perfection of God's written word in English as supposedly embodied within the "PCE", should lower case spirit refer to God in some cases when at other places the capitalized Spirit is seemingly correct instead?

That is what's in view here; trying to get you to actually provide some explanation about what you believe explains these features which seem unaccountably and capriciously variable or inconsistent to those of us who don't believe in such a thing as a single perfect English Bible translation.

You have expressed the view that the "PCE" is utterly perfect.

Others have given numerous examples in the "PCE" that a reasonable man would accept as evidence of inconsistency and therefore of imperfection in usage of grammar, spelling or punctuation.

You have maintained not only that the "PCE" is actually perfect in spite of these demonstrations, but that indeed anything other than whatever appears in the "PCE" at these points would be imperfect or erroneous, regardless of any appearance of error or inconsistency.

We're trying to understand how you can believe this, and to get you to offer an explanation beyond "I believe it's perfect because it's the way the PCE is and God arranged it this way", when all the scientific and historical and text-critical evidence (including the approaches of the Reformationists, which was to emphasize ad fontes) flies in the face of such a presupposition.

What you've done thus far is to call views other than your own "rationalist", and to repeatedly appeal to the concept of the "perfection of the KJB", but you won't explain how such a view is compatible with the evidence.

I'm led to suppose this to be a "faith view" on your part, that is, whatever may appear by way of imperfections in the KJV/PCE, those appearances are false, and are merely failings of our comprehension and understanding.
 
SAWBONES said:
Why, in the perfection of God's written word in English as supposedly embodied within the "PCE", should lower case spirit refer to God in some cases when at other places the capitalized Spirit is seemingly correct instead?

You have wrong assumptions. You assume that lower case "s" "spirit" does not refer to God, and that you have a formula that says that when God is meant, it must be capital. If you laid aside those assumptions, you would then ask the question, like, why did all those Christian readers, editors and publishers of the KJB ever have the word "spirit" sometimes lower case? Then, you could ask, the question more specifically about the editions from the latter portion of the last 400 + years. Why did KJB editions, in the 20th century, have this feature?

The answer, from a believing perspective, is that there is some meaning differences depending on what is used. This answer applies broadly to the KJB, besides to the specificity of the PCE.

SAWBONES said:
That is what's in view here; trying to get you to actually provide some explanation about what you believe explains these features which seem unaccountably and capriciously variable or inconsistent to those of us who don't believe in such a thing as a single perfect English Bible translation.

The reason why you are perplexed and can only see only haphazardness keeps you from recognising patterns in the usage. You assume haphazardness based upon a naturalistic view. But when the various instances of the lower case "s" "spirit" examined in relation to God, interesting, exact and telling doctrinal details emerge.

SAWBONES said:
You have expressed the view that the "PCE" is utterly perfect.

Others have given numerous examples in the "PCE" that a reasonable man would accept as evidence of inconsistency and therefore of imperfection in usage of grammar, spelling or punctuation.

You wrongly call a doubter, or an uncertain man as "reasonable".

Even if you approach the issue without the idea of an exactly perfect editorial form, you would still recognise patterns and deliberate choices in the usage of grammar, spelling and punctuation. In fact, the attempted case for "inconsistency" has only really been manufactured as an attempted rebuttal of arguing for editorial perfection.

SAWBONES said:
You have maintained not only that the "PCE" is actually perfect in spite of these demonstrations, but that indeed anything other than whatever appears in the "PCE" at these points would be imperfect or erroneous, regardless of any appearance of error or inconsistency.

In reality, a truly reasonable approach does not assume the worst. Really, the so-called "reasonable" man is a doubter, something which the Scripture calls unreasonable, "And that we may be delivered from unreasonable and wicked men: for all men have not faith." (2Th 3:2).

SAWBONES said:
We're trying to understand how you can believe this, and to get you to offer an explanation beyond "I believe it's perfect because it's the way the PCE is and God arranged it this way", when all the scientific and historical and text-critical evidence (including the approaches of the Reformationists, which was to emphasize ad fontes) flies in the face of such a presupposition.

You misrepresent this as an "because I said so"/"my opinion is king"/fideistic view versus reason. In fact, it is an ideological battle between belief and the fruits of infidelity.

Infidelity is always going to emphasise the human element (either by reasoning or by empiricism) over the actual providential provision of Scripture. Those who wish to emphasise a false scientific, false history, false textual critical and false scholarly interpretation are not presenting actual evidence, but rather a human constructed view. There is no authority in itself in those approaches.

Rather, by starting with the Scripture itself and by Scripture itself, proper conclusions will be arrived at. Ones where God has actually outworked to supply His Word properly, ones where proper interpretation is attainable, and one where knowledge is certain. The exact opposite is the beginning, outworking and conclusion of the methods which are borne of infidelity.

But, according to Scripture, as long as you begin from your wrong premise with you wrong presuppositions, of course you will always reject or wonder about how the words of the KJB can be accurate.

SAWBONES said:
What you've done thus far is to call views other than your own "rationalist", and to repeatedly appeal to the concept of the "perfection of the KJB", but you won't explain how such a view is compatible with the evidence.

Not so, because superstition or old time Romanism are not "rationalist", neither is Islam, etc. What I have said is that the spirit of error has come into the thinking of a lot of "Christianity", because of the infidelity of the world. Many have adopted assumptions based on that approach.

Thus, a person may actually be like a Deist, who believes God inspired the Scripture perfectly, but then allowed natural law to bring about the haphazard state of affairs with modern versions or with strained irregularities in the KJB editions, etc. etc.


SAWBONES said:
I'm led to suppose this to be a "faith view" on your part, that is, whatever may appear by way of imperfections in the KJV/PCE, those appearances are false, and are merely failings of our comprehension and understanding.

Not failings, but wilful rejections. Of course, there is a spirit behind all that happily obliging the more vicious, concerted and deceptive attacks against the perfection of the KJB.
 
Hi,

FSSL said:
I do not see an allusion back to Luke at all in 1 John 5:8. The testifying Spirit in 5:8 has already been identified in 1 John 5:6.

Are you reading the full text with the heavenly and earthly witnesses? You simply see the Holy Spirit being referenced three verses in a row?

If so, can you quote any interpreters who have this position?  Or are you asking us have the Bible molded to your quirky, personal, capricious understanding?

Steven
 
bibleprotector said:
Of course, there is a spirit behind all that happily obliging the more vicious, concerted and deceptive attacks against the perfection of the KJB.

So, you're saying that rejection of KJVOism, including the idea of PCE-perfection, is ultimately demonic?
 
Debating with a KJVo-ist is like trying to win at whack-a-mole.
 
Back
Top