Redefining Inerrancy to allow for errors

[subllibrm]

And even you must know that the KJV does not match exactly what the Autographs contained.

More trickiness. Of course the Autographs were not printed in English.

No trickiness. Ransom was just applying your argument to another translation and showing that the same conclusion follows. You then moved the goal posts to require and exact match to the autographs. And since the KJV does not meet this new requirement either your whole house of cards falls.

Somebody post a face palm please.