ALAYMAN said:
rsc2a said:
Can the Spirit use the gospel to grant someone a knowledge of God? Sure...He can also use a car crash, a sunset, bad (or even erroneous) preaching, and or a cult.
Well, if the Bible only taught that you'd be okay, but since the Bible don't teach that God uses the foolishness of sunsets, well, you're full poo-poo.
When I look at your heavens, the work of your fingers, the moon and the stars, which you have set in place, what is man that you are mindful of him, and the son of man that you care for him?
For what can be known about God is plain to them, because God has shown it to them. For his invisible attributes, namely, his eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly perceived, ever since the creation of the world, in the things that have been made.
<whistles>
[quote author=ALAYMAN]
rsc2a said:
Again, Jesus saves. Period.
Yes, Jesus alone saves, and you being the good reformed <ahem :
> sort that you are undoubtedly knows that He has appointed means to do so. Wonder what those means are, according to the Bible, God's word, not Rob Bell or some POMO.
rsc2a said:
And you again repeat the same error. We are not saved by what we believe. We are saved by Jesus.
So people can believe in Peter Pan, and Jesus saves them. Got it.[/quote]
I don't put limitations on the Creator of the Universe.
[quote author=ALAYMAN]
rsc2a said:
Sure, it's heresy. Now engage the texts that discuss baptism "for the remission of sins" (and a bunch more passages) and talk about the place of baptism in salvation/justification/sanctification/.... in a way that shows where salvation is not dependent on baptism without completely ignoring (or completely re-writing) passages you don't like.
As usual, you fly off on tangents. I addresses "for remission of sins" to Chuckbob in the very beginning of the thread.[/quote]
Yes, you explained your view by changing a word (that appears in virtually all translations) to another phrase (that doesn't appear in any), in spite of the fact that the word is common to koine Greek and is consistently translated throughout Scripture. (Of course, you haven't touched other difficult passages because this is a lot harder to hide.)
[quote author=ALAYMAN]The truth is that salvation is by grace alone through faith alone (Eph 2:8-9 et al) which is widely attested to in a variety of NT Scriptures. A rule of sound hermeneutics is that when a clear theme or doctrine is established then seemingly contradictory passages must be explained in such a way that they systematically cohere with the entirety of the clear teachings. Anything that goes against such clear teachings is either error, or heresy. It's really not difficult.[/quote]
It's not difficult. The argument will be about what is "a clear theme or doctrine". Coc'ers will say one thing; Baptists will say another. I will say Jesus alone saves; you will say your belief about Jesus saves.
[quote author=ALAYMAN]
rsc2a said:
So you accuse me of something then when I ask you to prove it, you back away. See
false witness.
You accuse Baxter of heresy, and me of being a liar. Seriously, who cares? Go back to Chuckbob's reply#35 and your followup response, or here, I'll show it for you....
Yeah, but if you're going for a strict literal interpretation Phil's on the money. That's what it says. Not a thing about spiritual symbolism of water and "for the remission of sins. This is just an area where a literal reading doesn't jibe with Baptiost dogma.
ChuckBob
But...but...but...
..."we" believe in a "literal" meaning, except in those cases where that meaning screws with our personal theology. Those other guys get it wrong because they don't believe in what the Bible plainly teaches, except those spots that they do where they are clearly wrong.
Chuck said they believed in a <strict> literal meaning, and you agreed with him, plain and simple.[/quote]
So you point out where I mock the fundy "literal means literal except where I don't like it" version of hermeneutics (something that I am mocking both the CoC'ers and the more 'Baptist'-types for) as "holding to a literal hermeneutic" when I plainly state that "they hold to an inconsistent interpetative scheme at best"...
...and say I'm claiming CoC'ers hold to a strict interpretive hermeneutic...
when I am clearly doing the exact opposite and call that "proof"?
I guess if putting liquid water in a freezer to make ice is proof that removing heat from liquid water converts it to steam, then you might have a logical argument.