rsc2a
First, it wasn't "blacks". It was slaves. Free blacks would have been counted fully.
There were no other slaves
except blacks. To be crystal clear: very early on, an attempt was made to enslave the indigenous native americans. However, that didn't work so well; the native americans had the 'home court advantage' and kept escaping into a wilderness that they knew far better than the whites knew. By the time of the Constitution and Bill of Rights, however, the slaves were almost entirely black. The specific wording of the Constitution excluded Indians from the count anyhow. So by default, the three-fifths rule applied to blacks only.
If you have any evidence whatsoever that this is not the case, then by all means bring it forward. And please note that I'm talking about actual slaves here, not indentured servants or apprentices.
There were also precious few of these so-called "free blacks" at the time. They did not enjoy the same liberties as the rest of society merely because they were not slaves; free black != white citizen. And of course, each state was free to pass laws restricting the free blacks in their lives and livelihood, as well as their voting rights and even marriage rights.
I'm not sure why you felt the need to quibble here; my point stands.
And...
"only counted" ≠ "only being"
1. It does for the purposes of the census.
2. And as far as federally recognized legal rights go, blacks didn't exist
at all. So my original statement "the part about blacks only being "three-fifths persons"..." was actually too generous. The only way they counted at all was for the census; and even for that, they were discounted by 40%.
...there is a fundamental difference there. The Southern States were wrong in this, but the Northern States were also wrong in that they didn't want to count slaves at all. (Are your more progressive states implying that slaves weren't really people*?)
* The answer is "of course not", but I'm just showing I could use your same reasoning to make absurd statements as well.
You aren't using *my* reasoning at all. I'm not arguing North vs. South.
I'm arguing that conservative thought would have *kept* the slaves as "three fifths persons".
Are you legally limited in what you can do with that car any more than any other citizen?
Compare...are owners of corporations more legally limited with what they can do with their resources than others?
You broke your own analogy. Let me fix it for you.
I am no more limited in what I can do with my
car, than any other citizen can do with his/her own
car.
Likewise, the owner of a corporation is no more limited in what he can do his
corporation, than any other citizen can do with his/her own
corporation.
Different kinds of property have different rights associated with them. That ought to be obvious. Hope that straightens it out.
BUT:
None of that answers the question, or responds to my point.
A corporation is property: so how did it magically obtain legal rights as a separate legal and political entity?
Allow me to provide my own citation:
Notice here that your citation implies that:
(a) people who work 1 hour and
(b) people who work 8 hours
should both receive equal pay at the end of the work day. By that argument, someone who puts in a 40 hour work week should make the same as someone who works 1 hour all week.
ORLY?
If you're going to hold to that position consistently, then fine. Otherwise, you might want to go back and re-think your citation, and find the discontinuity in it. Let me know if you can't find it, or would like a hint.
Private property laws for one.
You mean like poor blacks being swindled out of their land, to make room for a resort for rich whites?
You mean like native americans losing their land, revenues from grazing rights, mineral extraction, etc. because conservative ranchers and businessmen didn't want to pay?
Where have conservatives supported private property laws for minorities? Everything I've seen indicates that they oppose such laws.
Also many conservatives think the government has no business in marriage, period.
Very, very few conservatives think this. Those that do, are more accurately described as libertarian than as conservative.
No...there really isn't. Planned Parenthood (for one) owns a couple members of Congress.
Tragically wrong. Apparently you missed the part where I said there was a difference in scale.
Would you like to compare the amount of PAC money that business contributes to Congress, vs. the amount that Planned Parenthood contributes?
Or do you really think that Planned Parenthood "owning a couple of members" is the same as the business lobby owning hundreds of members?
Hmm?
Odd...I thought it was conservatives saying that there should be a surcharge on Chinese goods because of the lower environmental standards (albeit they have different reasoning).
1. Feel free to provide the citation.
2. And "different reasoning" does matter. Since we're discussing political philosophy here, intent is a key element. If the conservatives were doing this merely to protect their bottom line and their profits - and only using the environmental angle as a way to push their issue - then it does not count as rebuttal for your position. It actually counts as evidence for mine.
Ok...in the other thread, you are talking about how one sector cannot drive the economy. Now you are arguing that one sector is driving the economy....you can't have it both ways.
You're not reading carefully enough. I am comparing:
(a) the reality of consumption driving 70% of the activity in the US economy with
(b) the business sector of banking being too large and creating systemic risk
This is not "having it both ways". It is comparing two different things.
Also, look at the major factors in the collapse of many banks (there were two): greed and government regulations requiring risky behavior from banks.
Greed? Yes.
Government regulation requiring risky behavior?
Utter and absolute nonsense.
Your first point is pretty much irrelevant. Without the Commerce Clause, Wickard v Filburn wouldn't have happened.
Feel free to expand on this.
Furthermore, many conservatives are strongly opposed to it. And it was the liberal side of the spectrum who signed the bill into law.
Wrong for several reasons:
1. It was signed into law by Bush, and could not have passed with merely Democrats in favor.
2. I am not arguing GOP vs. Democrats anyhow. I am arguing conservative vs. progressive. The current Democratic party is a center-right party. The GOP is a right party. There is no (credible) center left or left party in the USA.