Received Text (Textus Receptus) vs. Nestle-Aland
Comparing the Nestle-Aland 28th edition with Stephanus's Greek text of 1550, there are no textual variants of note in 1 Corinthians 1:18--a few accents only. So this section is irrelevant and can be ignored...
Theological and Textual Differences
...as can this...
Would you like to hear my character assassination of Westcott and Hort now?
...and this.
Gosh. I hope you didn't waste a whole lot of time typing up that red herring.
In passages such as Ephesians 2:8, the KJV states ... This phrase implies a completed action, aligning with the traditional view of justification as a definitive event where salvation is already secured through faith in Jesus Christ.
Correct. In Eph. 2:8, the term σεσῳσμένοι is a perfect participle, indicating a completed action. Of course, the NIV also gets this correct: "by grace you have been saved," also indicating a completed action.
In passages like 1 Corinthians 1:18, the NKJV states, "For the message of the cross is foolishness to those who are perishing, but to us who are being saved it is the power of God." The use of "being saved" suggests an ongoing process, to many it would suggest that salvation might or could be lost in some way,
And in 1 Cor. 1:18, the term σῳζομένοις is a present participle, meaning it indicates an action that is presently ongoing. Sanctification is a present reality,
now: if you are in between being justified (a past, completed action) and being glorified (a future action yet to be taken), then you are, right now,
being saved--sanctified--because the Holy Spirit is actively working within you to rescue you from the power of sin and make you more Christ-like.
This is why I called you the Amazing Self-Refuting Newbie. On one hand, you affirm that sanctification
is an "ongoing process." On the other, you are asserting that 1 Cor. 1:18
can't be talking about sanctification. I wanted to know why not. That's why I asked for you to exegete the verse rigorously. You provided no exegesis
at all, let alone rigour. You did nothing but appeal to your own presuppositions, which remain unsupported by any textual evidence.
And then you return to the TR vs. NA debate, so your "conclusion" is also irrelevant.
Want to know
my conclusion? You have no idea what you're talking about, and you're so intellectually lazy you couldn't be bothered to look up first principles: whether the differences between the KJV and NIV in 1 Cor. 1:18 are due to
translation or
transmission. You guessed. And you guessed wrong.
Well, so much for you.