Does this forum has any KJ only members

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Situational ethics at its best....

Not even close.

Counter false teaching with false teaching because it is less false.

Nope. Counter false teaching with the truth: that KJV-onlyism is unscriptural and heterodox.  Unscriptural, because its tenets are not to be found in Scripture (when rightly interpreted), and hence not binding on Christians to believe; and heterodox, because in its more extreme forms it has become a test of fellowship, if not salvation itself.
 
qwerty said:
Izdaari said:
Ransom is right, even if I don't care for his snarkiness. KJVO is a novel, heterodox position, not part of historic Christianity, and so it cannot have the status of a default position. It's a weird innovation ("If it's new, it can't be true"), so we're free to reject it, even obligated to reject it, without proving anything. It is up to those who argue for it to make their case from Scripture, if they can. Alas, year after year of tiresome dead horse arguments have made it abundantly clear that they cannot. You KJVOs will have to do better before I even think it's worth my time to argue it with you.

But there's nothing at all wrong with somebody having a personal preference for the KJV.  There are times when I prefer it myself, not usually but when an especially literary mood strikes me. De gustabus non disputandem est. Just don't try to tell me it's the only legitimate translation, or be ready to be called a heretic, and if you're extreme about it, a cultist and bibliolater.

The principle is the same either way.  To accuse someone of false teachings because your position as well has the same lack of support is hypocritical. Blame someone for a crime because it is not a law to commit that crime, but they have to prove their innocence....

Both arguments hold no water.....the non KJVO crowd has as much scriptural support for their argument,  but because we are asking first you require them to cite verses .....yeah,  that's the better position :o

Actually this matter is easy to solve...if a person who is KJVO states that the Scripture teaches that the KJV is the only valid translation and was particularly inspired by God, then they are required to show their scriptural proof.  If I say the Bible does not teach such, I am not required to show a verse that says the Bible doesn't teach something...its mere absence from Scripture proves my point.  If someone claims Scripture teaches something that it does not by definition at the very least they are mistaken and at the very most they are false.  If they are mistaken and then asked to show their clear proof but cannot, and they continue to hold to their false claim then they are false teachers.
 
T-Bone said:
qwerty said:
Izdaari said:
Ransom is right, even if I don't care for his snarkiness. KJVO is a novel, heterodox position, not part of historic Christianity, and so it cannot have the status of a default position. It's a weird innovation ("If it's new, it can't be true"), so we're free to reject it, even obligated to reject it, without proving anything. It is up to those who argue for it to make their case from Scripture, if they can. Alas, year after year of tiresome dead horse arguments have made it abundantly clear that they cannot. You KJVOs will have to do better before I even think it's worth my time to argue it with you.

But there's nothing at all wrong with somebody having a personal preference for the KJV.  There are times when I prefer it myself, not usually but when an especially literary mood strikes me. De gustabus non disputandem est. Just don't try to tell me it's the only legitimate translation, or be ready to be called a heretic, and if you're extreme about it, a cultist and bibliolater.

The principle is the same either way.  To accuse someone of false teachings because your position as well has the same lack of support is hypocritical. Blame someone for a crime because it is not a law to commit that crime, but they have to prove their innocence....

Both arguments hold no water.....the non KJVO crowd has as much scriptural support for their argument,  but because we are asking first you require them to cite verses .....yeah,  that's the better position :o

Actually this matter is easy to solve...if a person who is KJVO states that the Scripture teaches that the KJV is the only valid translation and was particularly inspired by God, then they are required to show their scriptural proof.  If I say the Bible does not teach such, I am not required to show a verse that says the Bible doesn't teach something...its mere absence from Scripture proves my point.  If someone claims Scripture teaches something that it does not by definition at the very least they are mistaken and at the very most they are false.  If they are mistaken and then asked to show their clear proof but cannot, and they continue to hold to their false claim then they are false teachers.




 
T-Bone said:
qwerty said:
Izdaari said:
Ransom is right, even if I don't care for his snarkiness. KJVO is a novel, heterodox position, not part of historic Christianity, and so it cannot have the status of a default position. It's a weird innovation ("If it's new, it can't be true"), so we're free to reject it, even obligated to reject it, without proving anything. It is up to those who argue for it to make their case from Scripture, if they can. Alas, year after year of tiresome dead horse arguments have made it abundantly clear that they cannot. You KJVOs will have to do better before I even think it's worth my time to argue it with you.

But there's nothing at all wrong with somebody having a personal preference for the KJV.  There are times when I prefer it myself, not usually but when an especially literary mood strikes me. De gustabus non disputandem est. Just don't try to tell me it's the only legitimate translation, or be ready to be called a heretic, and if you're extreme about it, a cultist and bibliolater.

The principle is the same either way.  To accuse someone of false teachings because your position as well has the same lack of support is hypocritical. Blame someone for a crime because it is not a law to commit that crime, but they have to prove their innocence....

Both arguments hold no water.....the non KJVO crowd has as much scriptural support for their argument,  but because we are asking first you require them to cite verses .....yeah,  that's the better position :o

Actually this matter is easy to solve...if a person who is KJVO states that the Scripture teaches that the KJV is the only valid translation and was particularly inspired by God, then they are required to show their scriptural proof.  If I say the Bible does not teach such, I am not required to show a verse that says the Bible doesn't teach something...its mere absence from Scripture proves my point.  If someone claims Scripture teaches something that it does not by definition at the very least they are mistaken and at the very most they are false.  If they are mistaken and then asked to show their clear proof but cannot, and they continue to hold to their false claim then they are false teachers.

Using the same principle in the example given above....
"If a person who is non-KJVO, states that the KJV is not the only valid translation which was particularly inspired by God, then they are required to show such biblical truth."

Both sides can't unless there is something in there that we don't know about.  If you wish to hold one argument to a standard, you should hold both arguments to the same standard to prove validity to the arguments in general.

A persons belief and conviction that can not scripturally based in solid biblical evidence can not be refuted by a belief or conviction that is not scripturally based in solid biblical evidence.

Which of us is to say that the KJV is not inspired and the best translation of the original text? Which of us is to say that the ESV is not that?  How about if the Living Bible was miraculously translated into the best translation?  The KJV argument is a straw man for both sides....one that compartmentalizes God and the scriptures to fit their belief; The other side wants to play God and pass judgement against a group and their beliefs.
 
qwerty said:
T-Bone said:
qwerty said:
Izdaari said:
Ransom is right, even if I don't care for his snarkiness. KJVO is a novel, heterodox position, not part of historic Christianity, and so it cannot have the status of a default position. It's a weird innovation ("If it's new, it can't be true"), so we're free to reject it, even obligated to reject it, without proving anything. It is up to those who argue for it to make their case from Scripture, if they can. Alas, year after year of tiresome dead horse arguments have made it abundantly clear that they cannot. You KJVOs will have to do better before I even think it's worth my time to argue it with you.

But there's nothing at all wrong with somebody having a personal preference for the KJV.  There are times when I prefer it myself, not usually but when an especially literary mood strikes me. De gustabus non disputandem est. Just don't try to tell me it's the only legitimate translation, or be ready to be called a heretic, and if you're extreme about it, a cultist and bibliolater.

The principle is the same either way.  To accuse someone of false teachings because your position as well has the same lack of support is hypocritical. Blame someone for a crime because it is not a law to commit that crime, but they have to prove their innocence....

Both arguments hold no water.....the non KJVO crowd has as much scriptural support for their argument,  but because we are asking first you require them to cite verses .....yeah,  that's the better position :o

Actually this matter is easy to solve...if a person who is KJVO states that the Scripture teaches that the KJV is the only valid translation and was particularly inspired by God, then they are required to show their scriptural proof.  If I say the Bible does not teach such, I am not required to show a verse that says the Bible doesn't teach something...its mere absence from Scripture proves my point.  If someone claims Scripture teaches something that it does not by definition at the very least they are mistaken and at the very most they are false.  If they are mistaken and then asked to show their clear proof but cannot, and they continue to hold to their false claim then they are false teachers.

Using the same principle in the example given above....
"If a person who is non-KJVO, states that the KJV is not the only valid translation which was particularly inspired by God, then they are required to show such biblical truth."

Both sides can't unless there is something in there that we don't know about.  If you wish to hold one argument to a standard, you should hold both arguments to the same standard to prove validity to the arguments in general.

A persons belief and conviction that can not scripturally based in solid biblical evidence can not be refuted by a belief or conviction that is not scripturally based in solid biblical evidence.

Which of us is to say that the KJV is not inspired and the best translation of the original text? Which of us is to say that the ESV is not that?  How about if the Living Bible was miraculously translated into the best translation?  The KJV argument is a straw man for both sides....one that compartmentalizes God and the scriptures to fit their belief; The other side wants to play God and pass judgement against a group and their beliefs.





 
Well, thank you PAYDAY, for several posts worth of completely useless smileys.
 
qwerty said:
T-Bone said:
qwerty said:
Izdaari said:
Ransom is right, even if I don't care for his snarkiness. KJVO is a novel, heterodox position, not part of historic Christianity, and so it cannot have the status of a default position. It's a weird innovation ("If it's new, it can't be true"), so we're free to reject it, even obligated to reject it, without proving anything. It is up to those who argue for it to make their case from Scripture, if they can. Alas, year after year of tiresome dead horse arguments have made it abundantly clear that they cannot. You KJVOs will have to do better before I even think it's worth my time to argue it with you.

But there's nothing at all wrong with somebody having a personal preference for the KJV.  There are times when I prefer it myself, not usually but when an especially literary mood strikes me. De gustabus non disputandem est. Just don't try to tell me it's the only legitimate translation, or be ready to be called a heretic, and if you're extreme about it, a cultist and bibliolater.

The principle is the same either way.  To accuse someone of false teachings because your position as well has the same lack of support is hypocritical. Blame someone for a crime because it is not a law to commit that crime, but they have to prove their innocence....

Both arguments hold no water.....the non KJVO crowd has as much scriptural support for their argument,  but because we are asking first you require them to cite verses .....yeah,  that's the better position :o

Actually this matter is easy to solve...if a person who is KJVO states that the Scripture teaches that the KJV is the only valid translation and was particularly inspired by God, then they are required to show their scriptural proof.  If I say the Bible does not teach such, I am not required to show a verse that says the Bible doesn't teach something...its mere absence from Scripture proves my point.  If someone claims Scripture teaches something that it does not by definition at the very least they are mistaken and at the very most they are false.  If they are mistaken and then asked to show their clear proof but cannot, and they continue to hold to their false claim then they are false teachers.

Using the same principle in the example given above....
"If a person who is non-KJVO, states that the KJV is not the only valid translation which was particularly inspired by God, then they are required to show such biblical truth."

Both sides can't unless there is something in there that we don't know about.  If you wish to hold one argument to a standard, you should hold both arguments to the same standard to prove validity to the arguments in general.

A persons belief and conviction that can not scripturally based in solid biblical evidence can not be refuted by a belief or conviction that is not scripturally based in solid biblical evidence.

Which of us is to say that the KJV is not inspired and the best translation of the original text? Which of us is to say that the ESV is not that?  How about if the Living Bible was miraculously translated into the best translation?  The KJV argument is a straw man for both sides....one that compartmentalizes God and the scriptures to fit their belief; The other side wants to play God and pass judgement against a group and their beliefs.

The problem with your post is that it is the KJVO that are declaring what they say is biblical.  That statement is false...the Bible doesn't teach that, thus making the statement false.  No one here is say that the Bible says that the KJV is anything either inspired or not...we are simply saying that it is a false statement to claim the Bible says anything at all about the KJV and to say it does is to read into the Scripture what is not there...that is false.
 
qwerty said:

Using the same principle in the example given above....
"If a person who is non-KJVO, states that the KJV is not the only valid translation which was particularly inspired by God, then they are required to show such biblical truth."


You missed the point.  The burden of proof lies on the person making the affirmative claim.

KJV-onlyists are the ones saying "God's perfectly preserved word for the English-speaking peoples is the King James Bible, and all modern versions are counterfeits." That is the affirmative claim.

The non-KJV-onlyist then says, "No, that's not true," or asks, "Now why should I buy into that idea?"  He has not made an affirmative claim. He is denying the affirmative claim made by the KJV-onlyist.

This is why we have the presumption of innocence in a court of law. It's up to the prosecutor to prove that the accused committed a crime, not the accused to prove that he did not.

Put more simply: If I stand on the street corner proclaiming myself to be God Almighty and the end of the world imminent, it's not up to the passers-by to prove me wrong.
 
Castor Muscular said:
Bob L said:
Ransom said:
Well, thank you PAYDAY, for several posts worth of completely ANNOYING AND useless smileys.

What he said.

Ditto.

Hey Payday,  you've been here before under another name right?  I am betting that English is not your first language.
 
[quote author=Ransom]If I stand on the street corner proclaiming... the end of the world imminent, it's not up to the passers-by to prove me wrong.[/quote]

:o

What do you know?
 
Ransom said:
qwerty said:

Using the same principle in the example given above....
"If a person who is non-KJVO, states that the KJV is not the only valid translation which was particularly inspired by God, then they are required to show such biblical truth."


This is why we have the presumption of innocence in a court of law. It's up to the prosecutor to prove that the accused committed a crime, not the accused to prove that he did not.

A prosecutor deals with written law, but does not prosecute people because what is absent in the law. If someone wants to park an RV in their backyard, but the neighbor does not want it there, he can not demand that the RV owner is breaking the law because of an absence of a law making it permissible.

Ransom said:
Put more simply: If I stand on the street corner proclaiming myself to be God Almighty and the end of the world imminent, it's not up to the passers-by to prove me wrong.

If you say that you are God Almighty and the end if the world is imminent, and I say you are not, and it is not the end, does my word make it so or would I have to provide some merit to my statement? 

 
A prosecutor deals with written law, but does not prosecute people because what is absent in the law.

If a prosecutor tried this, his case would be thrown out because it was argued on the basis of a false law.

If KJV-onlyism cannot be established from the Scriptures (i.e. it is absent in the law, so to speak), then, by definition, it is a false doctrine.

The onus is on the prosecutor to prove a crime was committed. The onus is on the KJV-onlyist to prove his doctrine is biblical.

Geez, what is so difficult about this?
 
The only way scripture could support KJVO is if it somehow mentions the KJV.  That wouldn't be entirely impossible, even though it came out 1600 years after the "closing" of scripture.  Scripture could have said something like, "In latter times, a foreign king will commission a translation of scripture that will be uniquely inspired by the Holy Spirit and even correct the original language, and this new language will be a language that is problematically vague so that the meaning of some passages is deliberately lost."  And so on. 

But... I don't think such verses exist. 
 
Ransom said:
A prosecutor deals with written law, but does not prosecute people because what is absent in the law.

If a prosecutor tried this, his case would be thrown out because it was argued on the basis of a false law.

If KJV-onlyism cannot be established from the Scriptures (i.e. it is absent in the law, so to speak), then, by definition, it is a false doctrine.

So all things not defined as permissible by law is false or false doctrine..... 10-4
 
So all things not defined as permissible by law is false or false doctrine..... 10-4

I was right, way back when I said you were an idiot. You're not even trying to interact honestly with what I've said.
 
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