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I was just watching the middle portion of Steven Anderson's crockumentary New World Order Bible Versions, where he tries to argue that the NIV is a "Catholic Bible" because it props up certain Catholic doctrines.
The first of these is infant baptism, where he argues that since modern Bibles omit the Ethiopian eunuch's verbal confession of Christ, there's nothing stopping infants from being baptized.
In response to this, I note two things:
And the latter is the main point of this post: Can anyone point to any Christian tradition, Catholic or otherwise, that practises paedobaptism and also uses the omission of Acts 8:37 as justification for the practice?
Conversely, I've seen both Catholic and Protestant sources that appeal to Acts 16:15, for example, assuming Lydia's "household" to include infants, as evidence that the church practised paedobaptism right from the start. However, I've never seen one appeal to the Ethiopian eunuch.
Anderson and other KJV-onlyists claim that this variant reading could be used in this way, but unless I can see evidence of it actually being used in this way, it seems to me that their objection is not one based in reality.
The first of these is infant baptism, where he argues that since modern Bibles omit the Ethiopian eunuch's verbal confession of Christ, there's nothing stopping infants from being baptized.
In response to this, I note two things:
- The eunuch was an adult being instructed in the faith, and you can't argue from an implicit confession of faith that no confession of faith at all is required; and
- the Catechism of the Catholic Church does not appeal to Acts 8 where it discusses the necessity of baptizing infants (CCC 1250-52).
And the latter is the main point of this post: Can anyone point to any Christian tradition, Catholic or otherwise, that practises paedobaptism and also uses the omission of Acts 8:37 as justification for the practice?
Conversely, I've seen both Catholic and Protestant sources that appeal to Acts 16:15, for example, assuming Lydia's "household" to include infants, as evidence that the church practised paedobaptism right from the start. However, I've never seen one appeal to the Ethiopian eunuch.
Anderson and other KJV-onlyists claim that this variant reading could be used in this way, but unless I can see evidence of it actually being used in this way, it seems to me that their objection is not one based in reality.