Steven Avery said:
bgwilkinson said:
What exactly is the reformation text?
All of the editions that came from the textus receptus in the period coming forth from the 1500s are Reformation Bibles.
In the 1500s through the 1800s the opposition was the rcc Vulgate, noting that the Vulgate did contribute to the pure Received Text. Starting in the late 1800s the contra text was the far more corrupt W-H recension.
For a list of Reformation Bible descriptions in many languages, see the 1996 book - The reformation of the Bible, the Bible of the Reformation by Jaroslav Jan Pelikán.
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btw, since you do not have a Bible position that you defend, this game of 20 questions gets a bit tiring. If you were asking sincerely, wanting to know more about the Bible, I would feel differently. However, I've never seen you acknowledge information or give solid counterpoint. So I am posting more for the readers. Although I allow that you could in the future actually interact iron sharpeneth.
And I will acknowledge that occasionally you ask a good question. As with the Maurice Robinson quote, that turned out to be helpful for our studies even as you ignored the response.
So, unless this becomes a dialog, where you state and defend your position, I plan to close it out. Time is quite limited right now, with a trip planned in a couple of days, and that is a factor as well. If you demonstrate real dialog capability, I'll try to keep some more time available, even on the road.
Steven Avery
Reformation Text or Reformation Bible.
I will attempt to summarize what you mean by reformation text. Correct me if I'm wrong.
It would be any text that was collated from any number of disparate and various sources during the 16th century. It would be a thoroughly eclectic text not based on any one family of manuscripts.
Are you saying you agree completely with Jaroslav Jan Pelikán?
I do not like to use the term "Textus Receptus" as it is exceedingly nebulous and was not used in the 16th century by anyone that has left a printed record.
It was unknown until 1633, long after the last Reformation Texts were completed, when the Elzevirs placed it in the preface to the second edition of their Greek New Testament.
In this preface the Elzevirs wrote, "Textum ergo habes, nunc ab omnibus receptum: in quo nihil immutatum aut corruptum damus -- “What you have here, is the text which is now received by all, in which we give nothing changed or corrupted". This term is not found anywhere before this time.
There is of course no single Greek manuscript that represents the "Textus Receptus", for the more than 30 varieties of the "Textus Receptus" were all eclectic texts formed by incorporating variant readings from many sources some known and many unknown to us today. No two of them agree completely.
They are totally different from what we term the majority text whether HF or RP.
Here is a nice list that shows several hundred differences between the KJV and the majority text of HF.
http://www.bible-researcher.com/hodges-farstad.html
These TR editions could be said to be hopelessly corrupt as they in no way represent the majority text. They are different in hundreds of ways. The Revelation is more corrupt than any other book because of Erasmus' poor manuscript. The last six verses are a Greek translation from the Vulgate and are not found in any other Greek manuscript.
Now I believe that all of the Reformation texts contain the Word of God and are the Word of God as Miles Smith said, be they Geneva, Rheims, Tyndale or even Wycliff though he translated solely from the Vulgate.
IMHO