What falsehood does the KJV teach?

[rsc2a]

A sister thread to this:

Here is my challenge to non-KJV-onlyists: Can you show me a passage in the KJV where it claims something is true, that really isn't? What falsehoods does it teach that I shouldn't believe?

A few ground rules, based on my experiences with the previous thread, just so we're clear on what I am not asking:
1. Don't just point out that the KJV "omits" or "leaves out" this or that. I think we can all agree that something unsaid is not the same as something denied. The fact that I do not repeatedly, publicly disavow membership in the Communist Party, does not imply that I am a member. Something true that is not said, is not the same as something said that is not true.
2. Don't just point out that the KJV says something different than the other translations. Being different is not necessarily the same as being wrong. We all recognize that there are multiple ways of saying the same thing. You need to show us that what is being asserted in the KJV is, in fact, objectively wrong.
3. Corollary to #1 and 2: No circular reasoning, please. If you are arguing one of the above, and your best argument is that the other translations says one thing while the KJV says another (or says nothing), then you have argued nothing except competing authorities. If you are going to appeal to the other translations alone to prove the KJV is objectively wrong, you automatically assume the burden of first proving that the other translations are objectively right, which is followed by the added burden of showing that the other translations and KJV are in contradiction.
4. Violate one of these ground rules, and at my discretion I will respond merely with the corresponding number. It is your responsibility to know what kinds of bad arguments to avoid.

There you have it. Let the accusations fly. What does the KJV say that I shouldn't believe?

 

[SAWBONES]

I don't believe that "non-KJV-onlyists" (now there's a term which includes nearly everyone in Christendom) assert that the KJV teaches falsehoods.

 

[Ransom]

I don't believe that "non-KJV-onlyists" (now there's a term which includes nearly everyone in Christendom) assert that the KJV teaches falsehoods.

Exactly. It's the KJV-onlyists that claim the NIV denies this or that essential doctrine (the deity of Christ, the virgin birth, justification by faith, etc.). No one, that I am aware of, is claiming that the KJV does anything similar.

The KJV-only and non-KJV-only positions are not symmetrical, in other words. Which is why the kind of "monkey see, monkey do" tactics of the OP really don't work.

But so as to honour my own ground rules, I'm going to step out of this thread now, as I have nothing further to contribute to it.

 

[christundivided]

While not a problem with the KJV the KJVOist does preach a superior English text. This is blatantly "false".

As far as the translation itself......

There is a glaring problem with the KJV in Hebrews chapter 4.

Heb 4:8  For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day

In the English language, we make a proper distinction between the historical figure "Jesus" and the historical figure "Joshua". While Jesus/Joshua is properly "Yeshua" or "Yeshu" in Hebrew, its clearly a better method to make a proper distinction between Joshua and Jesus. Not only do modern versions correct this issue, the progressive nature of language throughout history has proven this to be true. Not only in English but several other languages as well.

When the KJV uses Jesus in Hebrews 4:8, it destroys the meaning of the writing. It introduces a Christ that can not give rest. When in fact, Jesus is the only One that can give rest. Contrarily "Joshua" who could never give rest. Never.

The KJV ( and others) gets it wrong and it introduces a "falsehood" in belief among those who solely use the KJV.

 

[prophet]

I'm wondering what the results of the false doctrine of Jesus not giving rest has been.  After all, 'come unto me all ye who labor, and I will give you rest' must somehow have been overturned by Joshua being translated into Greek.
Never mind the same 'error' in Acts 7:45, where Jhesu (wycliffe) Iosue (Tyndale) led the Israelites into their possession.


Anishinabe

 

[Timothy]

Acts 12:4 (KJV)
And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

Acts 12:4 (NIV)
After arresting him, he put him in prison, handing him over to be guarded by four squads of four soldiers each. Herod intended to bring him out for public trial after the Passover.

Was it Easter or Passover?

 

[rsc2a]

I wouldn't call them "falsehoods" but there are definitely a few translation..hrm...issues in the KJV.