The HCSB and "Slaves of Christ"

[biscuit1953]

Rom 1:1 Paul, a slave of Christ Jesus
Eph 6:6 Don’t work only while being watched, in order to please men, but as slaves of Christ
Phil 1:1 Paul and Timothy, slaves of Christ Jesus:
Col 4:12 a slave of Christ Jesus, greets you.
Titus 1:1 Paul, a slave of God

These are just a few examples where the HCSB uses the word "slave" or "slaves" instead of "servant" or "bondservant."  In the "bullet notes" the editors claim that doulos can't be accurately translated any other way.  This really irks me to no end.  In Exodus 21 a "bondservant" is one who decides to willingly serve his master for life as opposed to one forced against his will.  In understand it was a committee decision to do this but I believe they got it wrong. 

I have been using the HCSB translation for some time now and really like it.  I will finish reading completely through it in the next several months but I will probably go back to the NKJV, not just because of this one translation decision but because the NKJV is so much closer to the KJV which I have used my whole life.  Can anyone give a good reason why "bondservant" as used in the NKJV should not be used?

 

[rsc2a]

Rom 1:1 Paul, a slave of Christ Jesus
Eph 6:6 Don’t work only while being watched, in order to please men, but as slaves of Christ
Phil 1:1 Paul and Timothy, slaves of Christ Jesus:
Col 4:12 a slave of Christ Jesus, greets you.
Titus 1:1 Paul, a slave of God

These are just a few examples where the HCSB uses the word "slave" or "slaves" instead of "servant" or "bondservant."  In the "bullet notes" the editors claim that doulos can't be accurately translated any other way.  This really irks me to no end.  In Exodus 21 a "bondservant" is one who decides to willingly serve his master for life as opposed to one forced against his will.  In understand it was a committee decision to do this but I believe they got it wrong. 

One is an ANE cultural idea and uses Hebrew to describe it. The other is a Roman-era cultural idea and uses Greek. In Roman times, a slave could be voluntary or involuntary, limited or permanent.

 

[Ransom]

In Exodus 21 a "bondservant" is one who decides to willingly serve his master for life as opposed to one forced against his will.

Yes, in the Hebrew culture of the Old Testament, "slavery" was actually a form of indentured servitude with a seven-year limit.

However, Paul is writing to churches in the Roman Empire, and his readers in Rome, Ephesus, Philippi, and Colossae knew the chattel slavery that the Romans practiced.

 

[biscuit1953]

Rom 1:1 Paul, a slave of Christ Jesus
Eph 6:6 Don’t work only while being watched, in order to please men, but as slaves of Christ
Phil 1:1 Paul and Timothy, slaves of Christ Jesus:
Col 4:12 a slave of Christ Jesus, greets you.
Titus 1:1 Paul, a slave of God

These are just a few examples where the HCSB uses the word "slave" or "slaves" instead of "servant" or "bondservant."  In the "bullet notes" the editors claim that doulos can't be accurately translated any other way.  This really irks me to no end.  In Exodus 21 a "bondservant" is one who decides to willingly serve his master for life as opposed to one forced against his will.  In understand it was a committee decision to do this but I believe they got it wrong. 

One is an ANE cultural idea and uses Hebrew to describe it. The other is a Roman-era cultural idea and uses Greek. In Roman times, a slave could be voluntary or involuntary, limited or permanent.

That is exactly my point.  It seems to me the HCSB was inconsistent in bringing that out.  The NKJB distinguishes between a "bondservant" which I believe correctly represents what the apostles and other Christians are instead of someone serving against his will.