Rachel Slick said:
I had a habit of bouncing theological questions off [her friend Alex], and one particular day, I asked him this: If God was absolutely moral, because morality was absolute, and if the nature of “right” and “wrong” surpassed space, time, and existence, and if it was as much a fundamental property of reality as math, then why were some things a sin in the Old Testament but not a sin in the New Testament?
Alex had no answer — and I realized I didn’t either.
As Stephen said . . . BS!
There is an answer to her unanswerable question. It's not glib, in fact it's fairly complicated; and, of course, it's completely commonsensical. Some of the moral teaching of the Bible transcends time, location, and culture, such as the rules against murder or idolatry. Some of it is intended for a particular time, place, and culture - for example, the ceremonial laws dealing with Temple sacrifice and so forth.
The trick is to actually
study the Bible, to figure out which category a particular rule falls into. This, of course, requires homework.
And, of course, there's no contradiction between an "absolutely moral" God and
some laws having a limited scope. That's nothing but an assumption on her part, that if God is absolutely moral, all of God's laws
must have a universal and eternal application.
This is just another form of the same "stumper" question skeptics like to throw at Christians: if you truly believe the Bible, why don't you abstain from shellfish, stone your children for disobedience, or wear clothing woven of only one kind of fibre? I was just remarking to a Facebook friend last night that even though there's an obvious answer to this question, it seems as though the skeptics get a free pass on it, all too often.
I don't believe I've posted my quickie hermeneutics study on moral theology on this forum yet. Maybe I will, once I'm at home and I have access to my notes again.