On page 10 of the thread entitled "The Best way to burn ..."
Where is the sound evidence for your assertions if there are actually proven facts as you suggest?
Biblebeliever, are you seriously suggesting that there are no proven errors in any editions of the KJV?
Are you seriously implying that the edition of the KJV printed by the King's printer in 1631 does not have a proven error?
Exodus 20:14
Thou shalt commit adultery {1631 London edition of the KJV}
Thou shalt not commit adultery (1769 Oxford, SRB) [1769 Cambridge, DKJB]
An error would still be an error whether it is made by copyists, printers, editors, or translators.
Would claiming that an inerrant book may have some new introduced errors such as typographical or printing errors be in effect asserting that inerrant and errant may be one and the same?
Is there an error in the 1611 edition of the KJV at 1 Kings 11:5 kept from the 1602 edition of the Bishops Bible [an error that the makers of the KJV failed to make sure that the printers corrected if they even noticed it]? Does the fact that editions of the KJV printed in London still kept this same error for 30 years suggest that the KJV translators who lived in London were not aware of the error since they failed to instruct the printer to correct it?
1 Kings 11:5 [Ammonites--1560 Geneva, 1568 Bishops; Amorites--1602 Bishops]
Amorites {1611, 1613, 1614, 1616, 1617, 1631, 1634, 1640, 1644 London}
Ammonites (1769 Oxford, SRB) [1629, 1769 Cambridge, DKJB]
Biblebeliever said:The King James Bible is the inerrant word of God. It is already a fact. There has not been one proven error ever found in the King James Holy Bible.
Where is the sound evidence for your assertions if there are actually proven facts as you suggest?
Biblebeliever, are you seriously suggesting that there are no proven errors in any editions of the KJV?
Are you seriously implying that the edition of the KJV printed by the King's printer in 1631 does not have a proven error?
Exodus 20:14
Thou shalt commit adultery {1631 London edition of the KJV}
Thou shalt not commit adultery (1769 Oxford, SRB) [1769 Cambridge, DKJB]
An error would still be an error whether it is made by copyists, printers, editors, or translators.
Would claiming that an inerrant book may have some new introduced errors such as typographical or printing errors be in effect asserting that inerrant and errant may be one and the same?
Is there an error in the 1611 edition of the KJV at 1 Kings 11:5 kept from the 1602 edition of the Bishops Bible [an error that the makers of the KJV failed to make sure that the printers corrected if they even noticed it]? Does the fact that editions of the KJV printed in London still kept this same error for 30 years suggest that the KJV translators who lived in London were not aware of the error since they failed to instruct the printer to correct it?
1 Kings 11:5 [Ammonites--1560 Geneva, 1568 Bishops; Amorites--1602 Bishops]
Amorites {1611, 1613, 1614, 1616, 1617, 1631, 1634, 1640, 1644 London}
Ammonites (1769 Oxford, SRB) [1629, 1769 Cambridge, DKJB]