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To read the debates on this forum one would think that the only options for translating scripture would be to use the TR(s) or WH.
Aren't most manuscripts available in some for that a person could access and translate from pretty much which ever they pleased? There seems to be a tacit agreement that there are only two possible options. Is it really that black and white?
Someone please clear this up for me.
Aren't most manuscripts available in some for that a person could access and translate from pretty much which ever they pleased? There seems to be a tacit agreement that there are only two possible options. Is it really that black and white?
Someone please clear this up for me.