It is an undisputed fact that Erasmus included the comma in the 3rd edition of his Greek text (1522 A.D.) in spite of the fact that it was not found in the most ancient of manuscripts or the majority of Greek manuscripts, period.
My question is this: Does this fact take away the key weighting argument from the extreme faction of KJVO that the TR is a representation of the majority readings of extant manuscript evidence? Or, is this simply an exception to the rule and not deemed as significant?
My question is this: Does this fact take away the key weighting argument from the extreme faction of KJVO that the TR is a representation of the majority readings of extant manuscript evidence? Or, is this simply an exception to the rule and not deemed as significant?