Is there any evidence that the doctrinal views of leaders in the Church of England may have influenced or colored the translating in the KJV? Did Archbishop Richard Bancroft, Bishop Thomas Bilson, or any of the KJV translators bring their Episcopal Church government views to the original language texts so that their Church of England doctrinal views possibly influenced their translating? Is there any valid evidence of Episcopal, hierarchical, or prelatical bias, coloring, or spin in the KJV? Were any verses in the pre-1611 English Bibles of which the KJV was a revision changed to strengthen Episcopal church government views or revised to weaken other church government views? Is the doctrine of church government in the pre-1611 English Bible differ at any verses from that in the KJV? How did Archbishop Bancroft and some of the KJV translators interpret certain renderings in the KJV in relation to the matter of church government? Did some of the rules given the translators make some Church of England bias almost unavoidable? Do many English-speaking believers today no longer recognize the veiled language that favored prelatic or Episcopal views? These are important and valid questions that should be considered. It is possible that English-speaking believers in other churches today are no longer aware of the Church of England arguments that were linked to certain renderings.