In what sense was Jesus made sin?

ALAYMAN

Well-known member
Doctor
Elect
Joined
Feb 2, 2012
Messages
9,473
Reaction score
3,089
Points
113
2Co 5:21  For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.


What does Scriptures mean when it says Christ was made to be sin for us?
 
It means heis the sin offering and sin bearer...he is eternally the Son of God...if at any moment he turned into sin he would have been disqualified as the sacrifice...sin did not die for sinners, the righteous one did
 
Obviously a metaphor.  Jesus could not literally "become" sin - sin is abstract, it's not real in the sense of being concrete.

It means that although Jesus was not himself guilty of any sins, he bore the guilt of sinful men. Imputed guilt is the flip side of imputed righeousness.
 
Day of Atonement

...particularly the two goats.

Leviticus 16 and Hebrews 8-10
 
ALAYMAN said:
2Co 5:21  For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.


What does Scriptures mean when it says Christ was made to be sin for us?
Isa 53:5  But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed.
Isa 53:6  All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the LORD hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.
 
Ransom said:
Obviously a metaphor.  Jesus could not literally "become" sin - sin is abstract, it's not real in the sense of being concrete.

It means that although Jesus was not himself guilty of any sins, he bore the guilt of sinful men. Imputed guilt is the flip side of imputed righeousness.

Yep, a metaphor. The Lamb of God became the sacrificial goat who carried the sins of God's people out into the wilderness. But the goat didn't go "as far as the east is from the west". Jesus did.
 
I appreciate the responses.
 
Back
Top