Example of opposite meaning between KJV and modern translations

biscuit1953

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I have always interpreted 1 Tim 6:5 as someone believing because they are blessed materially, or have the biggest church membership, or win the most souls are more godly than others.  Almost all modern translations seem to teach just the opposite; using religion for financial gain.    I have no idea which translation is correct but is shows how even Greek scholars can translate something into English that gives what seems to me to be entirely different meanings.

King James Version

1 Timothy 6:5
Perverse disputings of men of corrupt minds, and destitute of the truth, supposing that gain is godliness: from such withdraw thyself.

1 Timothy 6:5

Holman Christian Standard Bible (HCSB)

5 and constant disagreement among people whose minds are depraved and deprived of the truth, who imagine that godliness[a] is a way to material gain.
Footnotes:

    1 Timothy 6:5 Referring to religion as a means of financial gain
    1 Timothy 6:5 Other mss add From such people withdraw yourself.



 
The 1535 Coverdale's Bible, one of the pre-1611 English Bibles of which the KJV is a revision, has the following rendering of 1 Timothy 6:5

Vain disputations of such men as have corrupt minds, and are robbed of the truth, which think that godliness is lucre:  From such separate thy self.
 
logos1560 said:
The 1535 Coverdale's Bible, one of the pre-1611 English Bibles of which the KJV is a revision, has the following rendering of 1 Timothy 6:5

Vain disputations of such men as have corrupt minds, and are robbed of the truth, which think that godliness is lucre:  From such separate thy self.
Either side of the being verb...  these are equal.  Gain is not godliness, and godliness is not financial profit.

1Ti 6:6
6 But godliness with contentment is great gain.

Here's the converse. ^^^^

1Ti 6:5-6
5 and vayne disputacions of men with corrupte myndes and destitute of the trueth which thynke that lucre is godlines. From soche seperate thy silfe.
6 Godlines is great ryches yf a man be content with that he hath.
(TyndaleBible)

Anishinaabe

 
I think this verse is a good example of the dangers of reading from one translation that is 400 years old.  Many words have changed in meaning and some mean just the opposite of current usage.  For many years I thought "betimes" meant "many times."  You say well why didn't you just look it up?  The proper question would be, "if a word is obviously outdated or means something entirely different than what we now speak why not just update it and translate it correctly so there can be no misunderstanding?"

When I was involved in King James Onlyism hundreds of times I heard someone read a passage and then proceed to explain that this word means so and so.  And yet, if one were to advocate changing and updating the KJV to reflect the modern meaning of the word or passage, immediately the accusation came that every word is pure and to change even one word in the text is attacking the word of God. 

Even Mitex claimed that if Westcott and Hort hadn't used the critical text he would have had no problem with revising the King James.  Of course that is only an excuse.  If it could have been updated in 1884 it could just as easily be done today.  The hypocrisy of the modern day KJV onlyists.

The bottom line is you can't argue with someone that ignorant.  I was just as guilty.
 
Willfully ignorant.

Afraid of the truth.

Hiding from the obvious.
 
bgwilkinson said:
Willfully ignorant.

Afraid of the truth.

Hiding from the obvious.
Absolutely.  I now read from the NKJV and the HCSB and can see clearly the meaning of many passages that once were so mysterious with the Elizabethan language.
 
bgwilkinson said:
Willfully ignorant.

Afraid of the truth.

Hiding from the obvious.

Job security. ;)
 
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